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Verse-by-Verse Defense of the Trinity
Refuting the Watchtower


John

by Dave Sherrill and others listed below

Return to the verse-by-verse index


Comments and Responses Welcome

If you would like to offer supplemental comments or a rebuttal to the analysis presented here, feel free to drop me a note. Be aware that by sending an email response, you are giving implied consent for me to publish it on this site if I so choose. All email will be read and considered. The inclusion or exclusion of any email is at my discretion. I will make one promise to you right now. If I choose to include your response on a supplemental page, I will include your original note in full, without altering it.


John 5:18

For this cause therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God. (NASB)

 

Before we enter into a detailed examination of the Son of God, I want to pause and reflect on the great mystery we are about to delve into. It is not a "given" that we will be able to immediately grasp the depths and nuances of the glorious person of Jesus Christ. In fact, we are easily confused, distracted, and mislead about many things, including the nature of God. This is due primarily to the effect of sin. The blindness it brings cannot be overcome apart from the sovereign workings of Almighty God. Even when we think we’ve "made it" in our understanding of the nature of God as revealed in the Scriptures, one fact remains. We are finite, created beings working to exercise our finite, created, limited intellect in order to grasp the infinite God. Calvin has pointed out the great irony which understanding God brings, namely that the more we understand about Him through His revelation, the more we realize that we do not know.

"In fact, if we heard God speaking to us in His Majesty, it would be useless to us, since we would understand nothing. So, since we are carnal, He must stutter. Otherwise we would not understand Him. By that, then, we see that we must understand that God made Himself little to declare Himself to us." (John Calvin, The Deity of Jesus Christ, Sermon 1)

 

We dare not investigate the Scriptures either flippantly or carelessly, in the light of this great mystery of God. Even so, He assures us in His Word that he has given us everything we need for life and godliness. The mystery need not keep us from looking. But let’s look carefully. And in everything that we do, let us do it for the glory of God.

 

As we dig through the deep, rich gold mine of gospel truth in John Chapter 5, verses 17 and 18 present themselves as a vein of the purest ore. If the entire chapter of John 5 could be likened to a flood of divine Christology, verses 17 and 18 are the breach of the dam, and the glory of the Son of God pours forth in torrents upon us. Again, the astounding claims of Christ rise here like leviathan from the depths, unstoppable in its purpose and undeniable in its massive presence. Or again, if the whole of Scripture is the atmosphere we breathe, the Son of God is its pure, life-giving oxygen.

 

This passage explains the grounds of the Jews hatred of Christ and, ultimately, their accusation of blasphemy against Him. In these few brief words we find shining indications of the significance of the title "Son of God" as used by and applied to Jesus. Since we are focusing here on verse 18, most of my comments will be related to it. Now, of course this verse is surrounded by and connected to its context. I will explore these connections here briefly, but bear in mind that I will be treating the surrounding verses in subsequent studies.

 

Let’s start with the Watchtower’s assessment of John 5:18 as found in their pamphlet Should You Believe in the Trinity? They say:

ANOTHER scripture offered as support for the Trinity is John 5:18. It says that the Jews (as at John 10:31-36) wanted to kill Jesus because "he was also calling God his own Father, making himself equal to God."

But who said that Jesus was making himself equal to God? Not Jesus. He defended himself against this false charge in the very next verse (19): "To this accusation Jesus replied: . . . 'the Son can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees the Father doing.'"-JB.

By this, Jesus showed the Jews that he was not equal to God and therefore could not act on his own initiative. Can we imagine someone equal to Almighty God saying that he could "do nothing by himself"? (Compare Daniel 4:34, 35.) Interestingly, the context of both John 5:18 and 10:30 shows that Jesus defended himself against false charges from Jews who, like the Trinitarians, were drawing wrong conclusions!

 

What Must Be In Order for What Is To Be What It Is?

I agree with the Watchtower on one thing they have said here. The Jews were drawing wrong conclusions. Now, before you pick up stones to stone me with, hear me out. The Jews were drawing the wrong conclusions out of the words of Christ, but not wrong in the sense that the Watchtower would lead you to believe. The Jews understood Christ all too well, that his use of personal and discriminating language regarding his relationship with the Father was a claim to Deity. But they misunderstood him in that they believed he was claiming to be, as D.A. Carson puts it, "equal with God as another God or as a competing God". It can be clearly seen in the discussion that follows their charge that Jesus was not disavowing his claim to Deity, but that they did not understand the relationship he was describing between himself and the Father. In other words, Jesus' response to their accusation is exactly what we would expect if he were claiming to be the Son of God, the second person of the Trinity. His argumentation does not fit well into the mold the Watchtower attempts to cast it in.

The Watchtower’s (Mis)Reading of Jesus’ Defense

Jesus, in response to the Jew’s accusation that he was making himself equal to God, states that he can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees the Father doing; and whatever he sees the Father doing, he does these things in a similar manner. The Watchtower presents this statement (minus the last phrase) as a clear-cut example of Jesus disavowing any claim of being equal to God. But is it? Let’s reflect on what was said. To pursue the Watchtower’s reasoning on this, let’s assume for a minute that they are correct. Jesus calls God "my Father", which the Jews misinterpret as a claim to equality with God. Jesus, attempting to correct their faulty understanding, states that he can only do what he sees the Father doing. At this point, if the Watchtower is correct, we would expect Christ’s claims to end right here. This would allow us to reasonably expect that the Father withholds some works solely for himself. The implication could then be drawn that Jesus is less than the Father since he only performs certain works shown him by the Father. Regrettably for the Watchtower, Jesus doesn’t stop speaking here. He continues on and explains the extent of the works which the Father shows him. And what does the Father show him? Christ continues on to explain that the Father shows him everything. Raising the dead and judgment (which the Father actually does not do, only the Son does) are specifically mentioned here so that "all may honor the Son even as they honor the Father". Christ raises the dead and judges them so that he might receive the same honor as the Father. Is this the language of someone trying to deny being equal with God? Said in the hearing of those who believe the power of life and judgment lies in the hands of God alone, this is not the language of creaturely humility. It is a description of exaltation in the sight of the Father, brought about by the Father Himself, for the honor of the Son and the Father equally. Is it any wonder why the Jewish authorities reacted the way they did throughout the earthly ministry of Jesus Christ?

Significantly, the Watchtower chopped off Christ’s words in mid-sentence. They left off the last phrase of verse 19, and it is very important indeed. The fact is that Christ did not complete his argument with 'the Son can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees the Father doing'. The concluding phrase "for whatever the Father does, these things the Son also does in like manner" is clearly a claim to equality with the Father, not of inequality. How can it be understood as a statement of inequality? To claim to do WHATEVER the Father does, in the same manner that the Father does them, is a claim of inferiority? Very unlikely. Once again, we find on Christ’s lips exactly what we would expect to find if he is the Son of God. This is not the pattern of speech we would expect to find if the Watchtower’s position were true. Perhaps that is why they left the words out of their Trinity booklet. It is too obvious to explain away and too damaging to include.

But if Jesus was not answering the charge of being equal with God as the Watchtower explains it, then what was he answering? Well, if the Jews were hearing Christ claiming equality with God as a competing God, then his response makes perfect sense. He was patiently bearing with them, explaining in painstaking effort the profound relationship between the Father and the Son within the Godhead. He, the Son, is not the Father. He exists in relationship with the Father, and the Father with him. Yet the nature of their relationship is not Creator/creature. Christ’s position, which he himself describes here, is too exalted, too intimate a position for any mere creature to occupy. It can be possessed rightly only by one who is God. Thus he revealed a multiplicity of persons in the Godhead through the imagery of his relationship as "the Son" to "my Father". One thing is certain. They did not take Jesus’ words as a denial of their charge of blasphemy. This can be seen in their repeated charges of blasphemy against "the Son". And these charges come repeatedly in the face of what the Watchtower characterizes as Jesus’ denials of equality with God. In light of the repeated and consistent charges of blasphemy leveled at Christ by those who heard him speak, the Watchtower’s attempts to empty these passages of their full meaning appear quite feeble indeed.

 

Examples where Christ’s words are explicitly equated with blasphemy.

NAS John 5:18 For this cause therefore the Jews were seeking all the more to kill Him, because He not only was breaking the Sabbath, but also was calling God His own Father, making Himself equal with God.

NAS John 10:30 "I and the Father are one." 31 The Jews took up stones again to stone Him. 32 Jesus answered them, "I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?" 33 The Jews answered Him, "For a good work we do not stone You, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God."

NAS John 19:7 The Jews answered him, "We have a law, and by that law He ought to die because He made Himself out to be the Son of God."

NAS Luke 22:66-71 66 And when it was day, the Council of elders of the people assembled, both chief priests and scribes, and they led Him away to their council chamber, saying, 67 "If You are the Christ, tell us." But He said to them, "If I tell you, you will not believe; 68 and if I ask a question, you will not answer. 69 "But from now on THE SON OF MAN WILL BE SEATED AT THE RIGHT HAND of the power OF GOD. " 70 And they all said, "Are You the Son of God, then?" And He said to them, "Yes, I am." 71 And they said, "What further need do we have of testimony? For we have heard it ourselves from His own mouth."

NAS Matthew 26:63 But Jesus kept silent. And the high priest said to Him, "I adjure You by the living God, that You tell us whether You are the Christ, the Son of God." 64 Jesus *said to him, "You have said it yourself; nevertheless I tell you, hereafter you shall see THE SON OF MAN SITTING AT THE RIGHT HAND OF POWER, and COMING ON THE CLOUDS OF HEAVEN." 65 Then the high priest tore his robes, saying, "He has blasphemed! What further need do we have of witnesses? Behold, you have now heard the blasphemy; 66 what do you think? "They answered and said," He is deserving of death! "

NAS Mark 14:61 But He kept silent, and made no answer. Again the high priest was questioning Him, and saying to Him, "Are You the Christ, the Son of the Blessed One?" 62 And Jesus said, "I am; and you shall see THE SON OF MAN SITTING AT THE RIGHT HAND OF POWER, and COMING WITH THE CLOUDS OF HEAVEN." 63 And tearing his clothes, the high priest *said, "What further need do we have of witnesses? 64 "You have heard the blasphemy; how does it seem to you?" And they all condemned Him to be deserving of death.

 

"The Son (of God)" as applied to and used by Jesus Christ.

NAS Matthew 3:17 and behold, a voice out of the heavens, saying, "This is My beloved Son, in whom I am well-pleased."

NAS Matthew 11:27 "All things have been handed over to Me by My Father; and no one knows the Son, except the Father; nor does anyone know the Father, except the Son, and anyone to whom the Son wills to reveal Him.

NAS Matthew 16:16 And Simon Peter answered and said, "Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God

NAS Matthew 17:5 While he was still speaking, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them; and behold, a voice out of the cloud, saying, "This is My beloved Son, with whom I am well-pleased; listen to Him!"

NAS Mark 3:11 And whenever the unclean spirits beheld Him, they would fall down before Him and cry out, saying, "You are the Son of God!

NAS Luke 4:41 And demons also were coming out of many, crying out and saying, "You are the Son of God!" And rebuking them, He would not allow them to speak, because they knew Him to be the Christ.

NAS John 1:34 "And I have seen, and have borne witness that this is the Son of God."

NAS John 1:49 Nathanael answered Him, "Rabbi, You are the Son of God; You are the King of Israel."

NAS John 5:25 "Truly, truly, I say to you, an hour is coming and now is, when the dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God; and those who hear shall live.

NAS John 11:4 But when Jesus heard it, He said, "This sickness is not unto death, but for the glory of God, that the Son of God may be glorified by it."

NAS John 11:27 She *said to Him, "Yes, Lord; I have believed that You are the Christ, the Son of God, even He who comes into the world.

NAS John 20:31 but these have been written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name.

NAS Acts 9:20 and immediately he began to proclaim Jesus in the synagogues, saying, "He is the Son of God."

NAS 1 John 3:8 the one who practices sin is of the devil; for the devil has sinned from the beginning. The Son of God appeared for this purpose, that He might destroy the works of the devil.

NAS 1 John 4:15 Whoever confesses that Jesus is the Son of God, God abides in him, and he in God.

NAS 1 John 5:5 And who is the one who overcomes the world, but he who believes that Jesus is the Son of God?

NAS 1 John 5:20 And we know that the Son of God has come, and has given us understanding, in order that we might know Him who is true, and we are in Him who is true, in His Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God and eternal life.

 

Note that "Son of God" did not only proceed in one direction (from Jesus lips to the minds of the hearers), so that their accusation could be said to originate solely in their own minds, alleviating Jesus of moral responsibility for their understanding. Rather, "Son of God" as a legal charge was found on the lips of the high priest himself, directed at Jesus, so that Christ’s answer must be seen in the light of the accuser’s understanding of it. That Christ was aware of their accusation can be clearly seen in 5:18, where it says the "Jesus therefore answered" their charge. Thus, Christ was not repeating his claims to be the "Son of God" in a vacuum, divorced from any knowledge of his opponent’s understanding of the title. Rather, He was fully aware of the implications and yet repeated the claim, not disavowing the Jews’ accusation but instead confirming their suspicions.

The Watchtower leaves us with the impression that Christ went about calling himself the "Son of God" while being completely ignorant of the import of the words as heard by the Jewish authorities. In doing so, the Watchtower shifts the responsibility for misinterpreting Christ’s words entirely onto the heads of the Jews. For if Christ never explained what he meant and was ignorant of the Jews’ accusations, the greatest charge that could be leveled against him is "poor communicator" since he gave such an incredibly false impression to those around him. But the events as they are illustrated in the New Testament bear unquestionable testimony to the fact that Jesus was fully aware of their understanding of the phrase "Son of God" as used by Himself. Yet he continued in the public use of it, even to the extent of confirming their accusation against him in his trial. Consider this. When Jesus was asked by the high priest if he was the Son of God, the high priest was not asking about so many words used in that sequence. No, the high priest was asking about the meaning those words contained. And in his mind, they contained blasphemy of the foulest sort. That he equated "Son of God" with a claim of Deity is evident in his reaction to Christ’s response. Now, if others in Scripture are said to be sons of God, how can claiming to be "Son of God" be blasphemy? Obviously, the high priest did not mean "son of God" in the common sense as used in other parts of the Scriptures. That, quite simply, could never be taken as blasphemy. I have yet to see the Watchtower attempt to explain that the high priest understood his charge against Christ as something less than a claim to Deity. That this was the Jew’s understanding of his charge, is undeniable. Just as importantly, this was Jesus’ understanding of the question also, for he knew their charge against him. It had been spelled out in the words and in the fury of the Jews against him several times. Jesus was aware of the NATURE of the charge leveled against him and not merely the words. So tell me, was he compelled to testify truthfully to the mere words of the accusation, or to the NATURE of it, to the MEANING of it?

Let me try to illustrate this. It is an offense in the United States to impersonate a police officer. Let’s say that there is a man roaming around the city, stating that he is a police officer. He performs the activities of lawful police officers, such as detaining individuals and seizing their property. Now this (supposedly) unlawful imposter is captured and brought before the bar. He is charged with impersonating a police officer and is asked, "Are you a police officer?" How might he answer?

1. He could say "No, I am not". Irregardless of the nature of the answer, this cannot be made to apply to Christ since his answer to the charge was in the affirmative.

2. He could say "Yes, I am." But perhaps he has a twisted concept of what a police officer is, thus he is answering according to his own interpretation of the words. He would not be directly answering the court’s charge, since he does not understand the nature of the question. This would be the fault of the court for not ensuring that he understood their intent. Is this the nature of Christ’s reply? No, it cannot be, for we are told that he was aware of the nature of their charges. He knew what they meant. This option does not describe Christ’s position before the court.

3. He could say "Yes, I am." Knowing full well what the court was asking, the imposter lies, affirming himself to be what he knows is not true. Is this the nature of Christ’s reply? If we take the Watchtower’s position on the whole matter, then this ultimately describes the nature of Christ’s reply to the high priest. The Watchtower would make a liar out of Jesus. I don’t believe their goal is to make him a liar, but in their zeal to overturn the Deity of the Son of God, they have failed to take their argument to its ultimate logical conclusion. His confession of being the Son of God while knowing what meaning the high priest had in mind, would be a lie.

4. He could say "Yes, I am." Knowing that he was a true and lawfully sworn police officer, he could then provide the proof that he is speaking the truth. His answer would be in accord with true truth and the accusation of the court would be found as false. This, ultimately, is the nature of Christ’s affirmation before the high priest. Jesus did not misunderstand the accusation. He did not perjure himself and give a knowingly deceitful answer. He told the truth, knowing what it would cost him. He truly is, by His own words, the Son of God.

This same argument is explained more fully by J. L. Dagg. This is taken from his systematic theology, which can be found online at:The Founders Works Online.

 

J.L. Dagg, Manual of Doctrine, Book 5, Chapter 1, Sec. II.

VII. If Jesus Christ was not god, he was justly condemned to death.

It is difficult to state and unfold this argument, without an appearance of irreverence. To charge the divine Jesus with crime, even hypothetically, is grating to the feelings of those who love and adore him. But it must be remembered that he who is, by this argument, proved to be chargeable with crime, is the Jesus of another gospel, a mere man, whose character and conduct are to be judged like those of other men.

Jesus was condemned to death by the Jewish Sanhedrin. That council reported to Pilate, "We have a law, and by our law he ought to die, because he made himself the Son of God." (John xix. 7) On a former occasion, Jesus said unto them: "My Father worketh hitherto, and I work." (John v. 17) And they charged him with blasphemy, because he made God his [own] Father, thereby making himself equal with God. It was in this peculiar sense that the charge of making himself the Son of God was construed, or it would not have amounted to blasphemy. The high priest who was the president of the council, put Christ on his oath, "I adjure thee by the living God;" (Matt. xxiv. 62) and propounded to him two questions which, though mentioned together by Matthew and Mark, are by Luke stated as proposed separately. "Art thou the Christ?" and "Art thou the Son of God?" It was the affirmative reply of Jesus to the last of these questions, which was the ground of his condemnation. Jesus knew the sense in which the question was propounded; and he was bound, on correct principles or morals, in answering the question, to answer it honestly and truly in the sense in which he knew that the high priest meant it. He therefore affirmed on oath, at that tribunal, that he was the Son of God, in this high sense. For this he was condemned to death; and if he was not what he claimed to be, he was guilty of perjury and of his own death. On this charge he was condemned to death, by the Council, but God justified him by raising him form the dead. "Declared to be the Son of God, with power, according to the spirit of holiness, by the resurrection from the dead." (Rom. i. 4) This proved that his condemnation was unjust; and that he was truly what he had claimed to be, the Son of God, in the sense which the Jews accounted blasphemy.

The last argument exhibits the importance of his doctrine in a strong light. According to the law of Moses, any one who enticed to idolatry was to be punished with death. (Deut. xiii. 6, 8) The council before which Jesus was tried, was the court which had cognisance of this offence . A mere man, who should claim divine honor to himself, was guilty of this capital crime; and although the Romans had taken away from the Jews the power of inflicting capital punishment, the council might, with perfect propriety, report to the governor concerning such a man, "By our law he ought to die." This was their decision, as reported to Pilate, concerning Jesus; and, if he was not entitled to the divine honor which he claimed, the decision was just.

Two accusations were brought against Jesus. Before the Roman governor he was charged with treason against Caesar, by making himself king. Into this accusation the governor inquired, asking Jesus, "Art thou a king?" Jesus answered in the affirmative, as in the other case; but, that he might not convict himself of a crime of which he was not guilty, he explained, "My kingdom is not of this world." (John xviii. 36) His reply was satisfactory to the governor, who acquitted him on this charge. In the other case he not only claimed to be the Son of God, but accompanied the claim with no explanation, to prevent the passing of the sentence. He might have said, I am the Son of God, but not in such a sense as to claim divine honor. He made no such explanation. If Jesus was not entitled to divine honor, he knew it; and he knew also that he deserved death, under the decision of this court, for claiming it. To make the claim before the court, was to be guilty of the crime. To answer as he did, on oath, if he did not mean to make the claim, was perjury. And to permit the sentence against him to pass, without any effort to explain, was to be guilty of his own death. It follows, therefore, that Jesus Christ, if not entitled to divine honor, was a wicked man and a deceiver.

We might suppose the possibility of mistake, concerning Christ's claim of divine honor before the court that condemned him, if he had habitually disclaimed such honor in his previous ministry. But, instead of this, he had taught, "It is the will of God, that all men should honor the Son, even as they honor the Father." (John v. 23) He claimed superiority to the law of the Sabbath, and the right of working every day, as his Father did: "My Father worketh hitherto, and I work." (John v. 17) He claimed to have been before Abraham, in language which appropriately intimates self-existence: "Before Abraham was, I am." (John viii. 58) He claimed to be one with the Father: "I and my Father are one." (John x. 30) Moreover, he never rejected divine honor, when offered him. Paul and Barnabas, at Lystra, indignantly repelled those who approached to do them honor as gods; (Acts xiv. 15) and the angel hastily prevented John from worshipping him: "See thou do it not. Worship God." (Rev. xxii. 9) When the people were minded to take him by force, and make him king, he escaped from them. He refused to be "a judge or divider," (Luke xii. 14) and declined all civil honor, in perfect consistence with his disclaimer of it before Pilate. But in equal consistence with his claim of divine honor before the Sanhedrin, he never rejected it when offered by any one. The man of whom he had given sight worshipped him as the Son of God, (John ix. 38) without rebuke; and Thomas addressed him, "My Lord and my God;" not only without rebuke, but with approbation. (John xx. 28, 29) To all this we may add, that the disciples to whom he taught the principles of his religion, and who believed that they had the mind of Christ, were accustomed to render him divine honor. Many proofs of his deity have been cited above, from their writings. That Paul did not consider him a mere man, is most clear from Gal. i. 1: Paul an apostle, not of men, neither by man, but by Jesus Christ;" and the whole tenor of his writings shows, that he felt such obligations to Christ, and reposed such trust in him, as are utterly inconsistent with the belief that he was a mere creature.

From these facts, we must believe that the deity of Christ is an essential doctrine of Christianity. As there can be no religion without the existence of God; so there can be no Christian creed in which the doctrine of Christ's deity is not a fundamental article.

Obj. 6. Jesus, in John x. 35, 36, explained his use of the phrase, "Son of God," as not implying proper deity. "If he called them gods unto whom the word of God came, and the Scripture cannot be broken; say ye of him whom the Father hath sanctified and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?"

As this objection opposes a very strong argument for the divinity of Christ, it will be proper to give it a careful examination.

In examining the tenth chapter of John, in which these words are found, we may observe the following facts:

1. The claim to be the Christ was not that on which the charge of blasphemy was founded.

While Jesus was walking in Solomon's porch, the Jews gathered round him, and asked, "How long makest thou us to doubt? If thou be the Christ, tell us plainly." They had asked John the Baptist, "Art thou the Christ?" The Jews were in expectation that their Messiah would make his appearance about this time; and, from the manner in which these questions were proposed, it is plain that the claim to be the Christ could not necessarily be blasphemous. It only needed to be sustained by proper proof, and the proposing of the question intimated a readiness to admit the claim. Jesus did not directly answer their question, but charged them with rejecting the testimony which he had previously given concerning himself, and the proofs which he had adduced. All this they bore, without charging him with blasphemy.

2. The charge of blasphemy was founded on the claim to be the Son of God.

This point is clear from the words of Christ, "Say ye, Thou blasphemest, because I said, I am the Son of God?" He had spoken of God as his Father in a peculiar relation, according to which he could say, "I and my Father are one." This was said after such declarations concerning the power by which his sheep were kept, as represented himself omnipotent as well as his Father. His oneness with the Father was, therefore, such a unity as implied his possession of divine attributes. So the Jews understood him; and this they distinctly declared to be the ground of their charge: "For a good work we stone thee not, but for blasphemy; because thou being a man, makest thyself God." On a former occasion they had made out the same charge against him on the same ground. He had spoken of God as his father in a peculiar sense, which implied co-operation with the Father, beyond what a mere creature could claim; and they who heard him, understanding the high claim which he set up, charged him with blasphemy, because "he called God his Father, making himself equal with God." (John v. 17, 18) It was precisely on this ground that he was reported to Pilate, by the Jewish Sanhedrin, as worthy of death: "By our law, he ought to die, because he made himself the Son of God." (John xix. 7) They also reported to Pilate that "he made himself Christ a king;" but they do not say that for so doing he deserved to die by their law. They said, "Whosoever maketh himself a king speaketh against Caesar." (John xix. 12) This was an offence of which the Roman law might take cognizance , and which Pilate might judge; but the other offence was a sin of which the Roman law would take no cognizance . The charge of blasphemy was investigated by the Jewish court, and was not made out on the claim to be "Christ a king."

3. Jesus knew that the charge of blasphemy would be left without foundation, if he should explain that, in claiming divine Sonship, he did not mean to claim divine attributes or honors.

The charge of blasphemy was, for making himself God, and equal with God. Now, the Jews called God their Father; and believers and angels are called sons of God. To claim sonship in this sense could not be blasphemy. Jesus knew all this, and showed himself able to avail himself of the plea which might be based on this distinction. He referred to the Scripture use of the term "gods," in its application to Hebrew magistrates; and showed clearly, that, if the words which he had used were to be justified by availing himself of this distinction, he understood well how to do it.

4. Jesus did not plead, that in making himself the Son of God, he did not intend to claim divine attributes or honors.

What has been supposed to imply this, is merely a question, which affirms nothing: "Say ye?" In this aspect, it is like the question proposed to the young ruler: "Why callest thou me good?" Jesus was not now on trial before a regular court, but was addressed by a company of malignant and captious men, to whom he did not feel bound to give answers and explanations at their demand. When they asked to know plainly, whether he was the Christ, instead of answering them, he charged them with rejecting the testimony and proofs which he had already given, and with murderous intentions towards him. So, when they state their charge of blasphemy, he charged them with inconsistency in making it out. They were desirous to condemn him. When he was finally delivered to the Roman governor, "Pilate knew that the chief priests had for envy delivered him to them." (Matt. xxvii. 18) Jesus, who knew what was in man, fully understood that their pretended jealousy for the divine honor, was hypocritical. Some of them, as members of the great council, could readily have found Scripture for being themselves styled "Gods," yet they would give no patient attention to the proofs which Jesus offered, to sustain his claim to the dignity he assumed.

5. Instead of leaving the matter to rest on the plea which these words have been supposed to imply, Jesus reasserted his intimate union with the Father: "That ye may know and believe that the Father is in me, and I in him." (John x. 38.) After this, it is added, "therefore they sought again to take him." It is manifest that the Jews did not understand him to retract the claim which had given them offence.

The Jewish magistrates, though called gods, in a subordinate sense of the term, had nothing of that intimate union with the Father which Jesus claimed. They were, after all, mortal men. "I have said ye are gods, and all of you are children of the Most High; but ye shall die like men." (Ps. lxxxii. 6, 7) But concerning himself, Jesus had said: "As the Father hath life in himself, so hath he given to the Son to have life in himself." (John v. 26) "The Son quickeneth whom he will." (John v. 21) "The dead shall hear the voice of the Son of God." (John v. 25) "The Father hath committed all judgment to the Son." (John v. 22) "I and my Father are one." (John x. 30) If, after making these high claims, Jesus had quailed before his enemies, and sought shelter in likening himself to mortal judges, called gods, he would not have closed his address by re-asserting that which had given offence. "Believe me, that I am in the Father, and the Father in me."

We should remember that Jesus was not now on trial. These words were not spoken before the Sanhedrin, where the plea which they are supposed to contain, was needed, if needed at all. When formally arraigned before that tribunal, Jesus did not object to their jurisdiction, nor to the oath administered by the high priest. He answered directly and plainly the question which the high priest propounded, though he knew well that the answer which he gave would, in the judgment of the court, convict him of blasphemy. Where now is the plea which he is supposed to have made on the former occasion? He then understood its bearing on the point. Has he forgotten it now? The plea urged on a former occasion, at a different place, to a different company, when not on trial, and not on oath, cannot avail now unless repeated in due form. Besides, when before made, if made at all, it was obscure, and hidden under the form of a question. It is now needed in plainness and by direct affirmation. But Jesus does not produce the plea. Let those who urge the objection we are considering, account for his silence.

 

Not Only The Son Affected By Conclusions

The depth of the importance of the Deity of Christ is easily overlooked. It is not simply the person of Christ that we are trying to understand. The very nature of the Father is bound up in the answer in profound measure. Leon Morris gives us a glimpse into these depths here.

Morris, Jesus is the Christ, p.101 (emphasis added)

The Father and the Son are to be considered together: the honor given the one must be given to the other, and anyone who fails in his duty to the one fails also in his duty to the other. The Jews were ready to give honor to the Father, but their failure to recognize what the Father was doing in the son meant that they were failing in their rendering of honor to the Father. They did not see him as the one who in the person of his Son came to earth to live in lowliness and to bring salvation to all who believe. That God was in Christ is very important for our understanding of the nature of the Father as well as that of the Son. If in fact God was not incarnate in Christ, then in the last resort when people had gone astray in sin God in effect said, "I’ll send someone to bring them back." If God was incarnate in Christ, he said in effect, "I’ll go myself." There is all the difference in a God who saves sinners himself and a God who asks someone else to do this. That surely is what is in mind when we read, "God is love" (1 John 4:8, 16). We cannot put full meaning into the love of God is in the end God leaves the task of salvation to someone else. We must see this behind the words of John 5. When people refuse to give the Son the honor they give the Father, they are not only coming short in the honor they ought to be giving the Son but they are also coming short in the honor they ought to be giving the Father.

 

Additional Quotes concerning "the Son (of God)"

Here are some thought-provoking comments from teachers ancient and modern.

 

B. B. Warfield, The Person of Christ According to the New Testament, VI. The Teaching of Jesus, 2.b.

http://blessedhope.simplenet.com/bbwar2htt.htm

The implication of Deity imbedded in the designation, Son of Man, is perhaps more plainly spoken out in the companion designation, Son of God, which Our Lord not only accepts at the hands of others, accepting with it the implication of blasphemy in permitting its application to Himself (Mt. xxvi. 63, 65; Mk. xiv. 61, 64; Lk. xxii. 29, 30), but persistently claims for Himself both, in His constant designation of God as His Father in a distinctive sense, and in His less frequent but more pregnant designation of Himself as, by way of eminence, "the Son." That His consciousness of the peculiar relation to God expressed by this designation was not an attainment of His mature spiritual development, but was part of His most intimate consciousness from the beginning, is suggested by the sole glimpse which is given us into His mind as a child (Lk. ii. 49).

 

B. B. Warfield, The Lord of Glory, p. 194-196

What is noteworthy is that in John 'the Son of God' becomes very distinctly a self-designation of Jesus' own (5:25, 9:35, 10:36, 11:4): and it is noteworthy that in connection with this designation He claims for Himself not only miraculous powers (9:35. 11:4), but the divine prerogative of judgment (5:25, cf. 27); and He was understood, in employing it of Himself, to "make Himself equal with God," and therefore to blaspheme (10:33,36). … Such a passage as 5:18, however, makes perfectly clear the high connotation which was attached to the constant claim of Jesus to be in a peculiar sense God's 'Son,' entitled to speak of Him in an appropriating way as His 'Father.' The Jews sought to kill Him, remarks the evangelist, because of this mode of speech: "He called God His own Father (patera idion), making Himself equal (ison) with God." And indeed He leaves no prerogative to the Father which He does not claim as 'Son' to share.

 

Peter Lewis, The Glory of Christ

Fifty-one times in the first three Gospels, and more than a hundred times in John, Jesus speaks of God as "Father." This in itself is remarkable, and we should not lose sight of that through our own familiarity with the term. For instance, only twice in the Old Testament is God directly addressed as Father, and only fifteen times is the word Father used of Him at all--and then only of His relationship to the nation and the king rather than to individuals as such. In corporate worship Jews sometimes spoke of God as "our Father," but the general reluctance to call God "Father," much more "my Father," is reflected in the Palestinian literature around Jesus' time. Indeed, O. Hofius writes, "We have yet to find an example of an individual addressing God as 'my Father'" even if the phrase "Father in heaven" was occasionally used later. (p.194)

Among Jesus' most important allusions to His sonship in John is His defense against the criticism of the Jewish leaders in John 5:17. They have charged Him with Sabbath-breaking in His healing work, and with claiming equality with God in the sense of competing with God. In response Jesus affirms both His equality with and submission to the Father. (p.197)

 

Leon Morris, Jesus is the Christ, p.132

They were not upset that Jesus spoke of God as Father in the manner of Isaiah or Jeremiah. They were upset that, because he spoke of him as his own Father, he related himself to God in a way in which he related to no one else.9

9. Barnabas Lindars regards "his own Father" as "in contrast with the sense in which God is the Father of all men"; of Jesus' suggestion that he was equal with God Lindars says, "Nothing could be more provocative to the Jews who did not accept his claim. It was not only the ultimate folly to put oneself on a level with God, but absolute blasphemy" (The Gospel of John, London, 1972, p.219).

 

Leon Morris, Jesus is the Christ, p.134

That God is Father means, for John, in the first instance that he is the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. It is in this relationship that we see what divine fatherhood means. But it is also important for John that believers enter the heavenly family and may call God "Father". As we have noted elsewhere, John does not call them "sons of God". As it relates to the heavenly family he reserves "son" for Christ; when he is speaking of believers, he calls them "children" rather than "sons". This is a Johanine usage; Paul, for example, does not hesitate to speak of human members of the heavenly family as "sons". But John's usage distinguishes between Christ's sonship and that of anyone else. Jesus is God's Son; believers become God's sons. He belongs to God's family because of what he is; we may be adopted into the family despite what we are.

 

A.T. Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament, John 5:18

{Sought the more} (mallon ezhtoun). Imperfect active of zhtew, graphic picture of increased and untiring effort "to kill him" (auton apokteinai, first aorist active, to kill him off and be done with him). John repeats this clause "they sought to kill him" in#7:1,19,25; 8:37,40. Their own blood was up on this Sabbath issue and they bend every energy to put Jesus to death. If this is a passover, this bitter anger, murderous wrath, will go on and grow for two years. {Not only brake the Sabbath} (ou monon elue to sabbaton). Imperfect active of luw. He was now a common and regular Sabbath-breaker. luw means to loosen, to set at naught. The papyri give examples of luw in this sense like luein ta penqh (to break the period of mourning). This was the first grudge against Jesus, but his defence had made the offence worse and had given them a far graver charge. {But also called God his own Father} (alla kai patera idion elege ton qeon). "His own" (idion) in a sense not true of others. That is precisely what Jesus meant by "My Father." See#Ro 8:32 for o idioj uioj, "his own Son." {Making himself equal with God} (ison eauton poiwn tw qew). isoj is an old common adjective (in papyri also) and means {equal}. In#Php 2:6 Paul calls the Pre-incarnate Christ isa qew, "equal to God" (plural isa, attributes of God). Bernard thinks that Jesus would not claim to be isoj qew because in#Joh 14:28 he says: "The Father is greater than I." And yet he says in#14:7 that the one who sees him sees in him the Father. Certainly the Jews understood Jesus to claim equality with the Father in nature and privilege and power as also in#10:33; 19:7. Besides, if the Jews misunderstood Jesus on this point, it was open and easy for him to deny it and to clear up the misapprehension. This is precisely what he does not do. On the contrary Jesus gives a powerful apologetic in defence of his claim to equality with the Father (verses#19-47).

 

John Gill on John 5:18

Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, &c.] They were the more desirous to take away his life, and were more bent and resolute upon it, and studied all ways and means how to bring it about;

because he had not only broken the sabbath; as they imagined; for he had not really broken it: and if they had known what that means, that God will have mercy, and not sacrifice, they would have been convinced that he had not broke it by this act of mercy to a poor distressed object:

but said also that God was his Father; his own Father, his proper Father, his Father by nature, and that he was his own Son by nature; and this they gathered from his calling him "my Father", and assuming a co-operation with him in his divine works:

making himself to be equal with God; to be of the same nature, and have the same perfections, and do the same works; for by saying that God was his Father, and so that he was the Son of God, a phrase, which, with them, signified a divine person, as they might learn from#Ps 2:7,12, and by ascribing the same operations to himself, as to his Father, they rightly understood him, that he asserted his equality with him; for had he intended no more, and had they imagined that he intended no more by calling God his Father, than that he was so by creation, as he is to all men, or by adoption, as he was to the Jews, they would not have been so angry with him; for the phrase, in this sense, they used themselves: but they understood him otherwise, as asserting his proper deity, and perfect equality with the Father; and therefore to the charge of sabbath breaking, add that of blasphemy, and on account of both, sought to put him to death; for according to their canons, both the sabbath breaker, and the blasphemer, were to be stoned {d}.

{d} Misn. Sanhedrin, c. 7. sect. 4.

 

J.F.B. on John 5:18

making himself equal with God --rightly gathering this to be His meaning, not from the mere words "My Father," but from His claim of right to act as His Father did in the like high sphere, and by the same law of ceaseless activity in that sphere. And as, instead of instantly disclaiming any such meaning--as He must have done if it was false--He positively sets His seal to it in the following verses, merely explaining how consistent such claim was with the prerogatives of His Father, it is beyond all doubt that we have here an assumption of peculiar personal Sonship, or participation in the Father's essential nature.

 

Matthew Henry on John 5:18

… he had said also that God was his Father. Now they pretend a jealousy for God's honour, as before for the sabbath day, and charge Christ with it as a heinous crime that he made himself equal with God; and a heinous crime it had been if he had not really been so. It was the sin of Lucifer, I will be like the Most High. Now, (1.) This was justly inferred from what he said, that he was the Son of God, and that God was his Father, patera idion --his own Father; his, so as he was no one's else. He had said that he worked with his Father, by the same authority and power, and hereby he made himself equal with God. Ecee intelligunt Judaei, quod non intelligunt Ariani--Behold, the Jews understand what the Arians do not. (2.) Yet it was unjustly imputed to him as an offence that he equalled himself with God, for he was and is God, equal with the Father#Php 2:6; and therefore Christ, in answer to this charge, does not except against the innuendo as strained or forced, makes out his claim and proves that he is equal with God in power and glory.

 

 

Gill, Body of Doctrinal and Practical Divinity, Section 829 in the Online Bible electronic version

To close all; this phrase, "the Son of God", intends what is essential and natural to him; and suggests to us, that he is the true and natural Son of God; not a Son in an improper and figurative sense, or not by office, but by nature; that, as such, he is a divine Person, God, the true God, #Heb 1:8 #1Jo 5:20 that he is equal with God, as the Jews understood him; in which they were not mistaken, since our Lord never went about to correct them, which he would have done had they misunderstood him, #Joh 5:17,18 10:30 and it is to be observed, that he has been concluded to be the Son of God from his divine perfections and works; from his omniscience, #Joh 1:48,49 from his omnipotence, #Mt 14:33 and from the marvellous things that happened at his crucifixion, #Mt 27:54. In short, as the phrase, "the Son of man", denotes one that is truly man; so the phrase, "the Son of God", must intend one that is truly God, a divine Person; and as Christ is called the Son of man, from the nature in which he is man; so he is called the Son of God, from the nature in which he is God.

 

Calvin’s Institutes, Battles translation, Book 1, Chapter 13.

12. THE DIVINITY OF CHRIST IS DEMONSTRATED IN HIS WORKS

Now if we weigh his divinity by the works that are ascribed him in the Scriptures, it will thereby shine forth more clearly. Indeed, when he said that he had been working hitherto from the beginning with the Father [John 5:17], the Jews, utterly stupid to all his other sayings, still sensed that he made use of divine power. And therefore, as John states, "the Jews sought all the more to kill him, because he not only broke the Sabbath, but also called God his Father, making himself equal with God" [John 5:18]. How great will our stupidity then be if we do not feel that his divinity is here plainly affirmed? And verily, to govern the universe with providence and power, and to regulate all things by the command of his own power [Hebrews 1:3], deeds that the apostle ascribes to Christ, is the function of the Creator alone. And he not only participates in the task of governing the world with the Father; but he carries out also other individual offices, which cannot be communicated to the creatures. The Lord proclaims through the prophet, "I, even I, am the one who blots out your transgressions for my own sake" [Isaiah 43:25 p.]. According to this saying, when the Jews thought that wrong was done to God in that Christ was remitting sins, Christ not only asserted in words, but also proved by miracle, that this power belonged to him [Matthew 9:6]. We therefore perceive that he possesses not the administration merely but the actual power of remission of sins, which the Lord says will never pass from him to another. What? Does not the searching and penetrating of the silent thoughts of hearts belong to God alone? Yet Christ also had this power [Matthew 9:4; cf. John 2:25]. From this we infer his divinity.

 

International Standard Bible Encyclopedia, "Son of God"

5. Alleged Equivalence [of "Son of God"] to Messiah--Personal Sense Implied:

(3) Trial before Sanhedrin.

There is another passage where it is frequently contended that "the Christ" and "the Son of God" must be exactly parallel, but a close examination suggests the reverse. In the account of the ecclesiastical trial in the Gospel of Lk, He is charged, "If thou art the Christ, tell us"; and, when He replies, "If I tell you, ye will not believe: and if I ask you, ye will not answer. But from henceforth shall the Son of man be seated at the right hand of the power of God," they all say, "Art thou then the Son of God?" and, when He replies in the affirmative, they require no further witness (Lk 22:67-71), Matthew informing us that the high priest hereupon rent his garments, and they all agreed that He had spoken blasphemy and was worthy of death (Mt 26:65 f). The usual assumption is that the second question, "Art thou .... the Son of God?" implies no more than the first, `Art thou the Christ?'; but is not the scene much more intelligible if the boldness of His answer to the first question suggested that He was making a still higher claim than to be the Christ, and that their second question applied to this? It was when Jesus affirmed this also that their angry astonishment knew no bounds, and their sentence was immediate and capital. It may be questioned whether it was blasphemy merely to claim to be the Messiah; but it was rank and undeniable blasphemy to claim to be the Son of God. This recalls the statement in Jn 5:18, "The Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only brake the sabbath, but also called God his own Father, making himself equal with God"; to which may be added (Jn 10:33), "The Jews answered him, For a good work we stone thee not, but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God."

 

Robert Reymond, A New Systematic Theology of the Christian Religion, p.218

The Title "Son (of God)"

Jesus claimed, as the Son of God, essential divine oneness with God in the Synoptic Gospels in Matthew 11:27 (Luke 10:22); 21:37-38 (Mark 12:6; Luke 20:13); 24:36 (Mark 13:32); and 28:19; and in the Gospel of John in (at least) 5:17-29; 6:40; 10:36; 11:4; 14:13; 17:1. To these must be added those instances in the Fourth Gospel when he claimed that God was his Father in such a unique sense that the Jewish religious leadership correctly perceived that he was claiming a Sonship with God that constituted essential divine oneness and equality with God and thus, from their perspective, was the committing of blasphemy (John 5:17-18; 10:24-39, especially verses 25, 29, 30, 32-33; 37, 38; see also 19:7).

 

W.S. Plumer, The Rock of Our Salvation, p. 41-42

The Sonship of Christ is one of the glorious mysteries of our religion. Angels are, indeed, sometimes called the sons of God. Thus, in the only reliable history of the origin of our world, we are told that at the creation "the morning stars sang together, and all the sons of God shouted for joy." Job 38:7. Because Adam came into existence without any created instrumentality, but directly from the hand of God, he is called the son of God. Luke 3:38. And because all believers are, by the Holy Spirit, renewed into the image of the Most High, and are adopted into the heavenly family, they are called the sons of God. Rom 8:14; 1 John 3:1. But the whole tenor of the argument in the early part of the epistle to the Hebrews goes to show that Jesus Christ is the Son of the Father in a sense far higher than can be claimed for any mere creature. He is preeminently God’s own Son, Rom 8:32; and God’s dear Son, Col 1:13; and God is preeminently his Father, John 5:18.

 

A.A. Hodge, Outlines of Theology, p. 182

State the orthodox answer to the question why Christ is called "Son of God."

The orthodox doctrine is that Christ is called "Son of God" in Scripture to indicate his eternal and necessary relation as the Second Person of the Godhead to the First Person, who is called Father to indicate the reciprocal relation.

 

A.A. Hodge, Outlines of Theology, p.186.

72. State the argument from the application in Scripture of the terms monogenes, (only begotten) and idios, (own) to the Sonship of Christ.

Although many of God’s creatures are called his sons, the phrase, Son of God, I the singular, and when limited by the terms "own" and "only begotten," is applied only to Christ.

Christ is called "only begotten Son of God."--John 1:14,18; 3:16,18; 1 John 4:9.

In John 5:18, Christ calls God his own Father (see Greek). He is called the own Son of the Father.--Rom. 8:32.

The use of these qualifying terms proves that Christ is called Son of God in a sense different from that in which any other is so called. Therefore it designates him as God and not as man, nor as the bearer of an office.

 

R.C. Sproul, Renewing Your Mind, p.93

There is a qualitative difference between the united relationship of Christ to the Father and the godward intimacy of any other person. Here the Semitic idiom expresses the uniqueness of Christ's person and work.

 

W. Robertson Nicoll, The Expositors Greek Testament, vol. 1, p. 738

The Jews found in ho pater mou (ver. 17) and the implication in kago ergazomai a claim to some peculiar and exclusive (idion) sonship on the part of Jesus; that He claimed to be Son of God not in the sense in which other men are, but in a sense which involved equality with God.

 

D. A. Carson, The Gospel According to John, p.249-250

Even Jesus’ use of my father adds to the pointedness of what he is saying. In corporate worship Jews sometimes spoke of God as ‘our Father’, but the individual way Jesus spoke of God as his own Father displayed the unique Father-Son relationship Jesus claimed as his own.

18. Jesus’ opponents instantly grasp the implications of his remark, including the fact that he was calling God his own Father. Perceived infractions against Sabbath laws were serious, and might provoke murderous intent; but a man making himself equal with God was challenging the fundamental distinction between the holy, infinite God and finite, fallen human beings. For this reason the Jews (cf. notes on 1:19; 5:10) tried all the harder to kill him.

… The rabbis acknowledge that God may make some like himself (chiefly Moses, Ex. 7:1) inasmuch as they represent God to others, but the four who according to Scripture make themselves like God all stand under terrible judgment: Pharaoh (Ezk. 29:3), Joash (2 Ch. 24:24), Hiram (Ezk. 28:2) and Nebuchadnezzar (Is. 14:14; Dn 4; cf. SB 2. 462-465). …

Some have thought that the Jews misunderstood what Jesus was saying--that Jesus was not really making himself ‘equal (isos) with God’. In the light of the argument from 1:1 to 20:28, it is hard to believe John took him that way. At the same time, John would be the first to insist that what the Jews understood by ‘equal with God’ was not exactly what either Jesus or John meant by it. The ensuing verses set out some of the parameters by which we may rightly understand that Jesus is equal with God (cf. Paul’s remarks, also with respect to isos, in Phil 2:6). Jesus is not equal with God as another God or as a competing God: the functional subordination of the Son to the Father, the utter dependence of the Son upon the Father, are about to be explicated. So once again there is irony: the Jews take umbrage at Jesus’ implicit claim to deity, having rightly detected the drift of Jesus’ argument; but their understanding of Jesus’ equality with God needs serious modification, for Christians will not accept di-theism or tri-theism any more than the Jews themselves. The ensuing verses may therefore be seen, in part, as a defense of a distinctly Christian form of monotheism (cf. Lightfoot, p.141), as much as an explication of the nature of Jesus’ equality with his Father.

 

F. F. Bruce, The Gospel of John, p.127

Had he said, "God works on the sabbath day, and therefore I am free to do so too’, his words would have given offense enough to his hearers. But the manner of his reference to God as ‘my Father’ was more offensive still: it suggested rather pointedly that he was putting himself on a level with God. In their synagogue services of prayer and thanksgiving the Jews were accustomed to address God as ‘our Father’; but Jesus appeared to be claiming God as ‘his own Father’ in an exceptional, if not exclusive sense. … But for the Jews the line of demarcation between the divine and the human was strictly drawn; it was unthinkable that any one should be comparable to God (Isa. 40:25).

 

H. Bavinck, The Doctrine of God, p.270

But the name Son of God when ascribed to Christ has a far deeper meaning than the theocratic: he was not a mere king of Israel who in time became an adopted Son of God; neither was he called Son of God because of his supernatural birth, as the Socinians and Hoffman held; neither is he Son of God merely in an ethical sense, as others suppose; neither did he receive the title Son of God as a new name in connection with his atoning work and resurrection, and interpretation in support of which John 10:34-36; Acts 13:32, 33; and Rom. 1:4 are cited; but he is Son of God in a metaphysical sense: by nature and from eternity. He is exalted high above angels and prophets, Matt 13:32; 21:27; 22:2; and sustains a very special relation to God, Matt. 11:7. He is the beloved Son in whom the Father is well pleased, Matt 3:17; 17:5; Mark 1:11; 9:7; Luke 3:22; 9:35; the only begotten Son, John 1:18; 3:16; 1 John 4:9 ff.; God’s own Son, Rom. 8:32; the eternal Son, John 17:5, 24; Heb. 1:5; 5:5; to whom the Father gave "to have life in himself," John 5:26; equal to the Father in knowledge, Matt. 11:27; in honor, John 5:23; in creative and redemptive power, John 1:3; 5:21, 27; in work, John 10:30; and in dominion, Matt 1:27; Luke 10:22; 22:29; John 16:15; 17:10; and because of this Sonship he was condemned to death, John 10:33; Matt. 26:63 ff.

 

A.T. Robertson, The Divinity of Christ in the Gospel of John, p.67

The Sabbath controversy grew very keen for the Pharisees now hated Jesus very much. His defense angered them more than the offense: "My Father worketh even until now and I work." This claim of equality with the Father and the corresponding right to work on the Sabbath as God continues His creative activity did not escape the notice of His enemies. They "sought the more to kill him" (5:18), having already had murder in their hearts. Religious persecutors are usually men of strong convictions of their own orthodoxy and infallibility, but with weak ethical principles. These men felt evidently that they were the champions of God against a Sabbath-breaker and a blasphemer who happened, however, to be the Son of God Himself and who was in reality doing the very will of God. So they pressed against Jesus "because he not only brake the Sabbath, but also called God his own Father, making himself equal with God" (5:18).

 

Geoffrey Grogan, The Christ of the Bible and the Church’s Faith, p.216

The Lord Jesus used the terms ‘Father’ and ‘Son’ in such a way as to suggest that the relationship between him and God was without any parallel. God is the Father and he is the Son (John 3:35; 5:19-27, etc.). He spoke of him as ‘my Father’, in an intimate way which, to say the least, was not characteristic of Jewish practice.

 

Morris, Jesus is the Christ, p. 29

Jesus is saying that he observes the Sabbath in the same way the Father does. The Jews recognized that his claim meant he was asserting that God was his own Father, his Father in a special sense, for he was "making himself equal to God" (5:18). But Jesus did not mean this in the sense that he was a second god, a being quite separate from the Father. He says that he is quite unable to do anything apart from himself, and that what the Father does the Son does (5:19). He does not say that he does similar things, but that he does the same things.

 

John A. Witmer, Did Jesus Claim To Be God?, BibSac, Apr-Jun 1968, p.155

All three of these passages point up a very significant fact concerning Jesus’ consciousness and claims to His identity. This is the fact that the Jews who heard Him speak and did not accept Him and His message considered Him guilty of blasphemy, judging Him to be claiming to be God, and were aroused on several occasions to the point of attempting to stone Him in the Jewish manner of execution. Furthermore, it was under this judgment of blasphemy that the Jewish leaders finally sentenced Him to death. Perhaps the liberals can develop a plausible case for the enthusiastic followers of Jesus jumping to conclusions about His identity which Jesus Himself did not claim. But it is difficult to conceive of His enemies drawing that conclusion without basis in His words. And it is even more difficult to conceive of Jesus being put to death because of a misunderstanding when a simple clarification would have saved his life.

 

Hendriksen, John, p.196

By the words, he also called God his own Father, making himself equal with God, the author once more brings into clear view the purpose of his Gospel. That purpose was to strengthen believers so that they might continue to believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God, and that believing they might continue to have life in his name (20:30, 31).

In addition to his stand with respect to the sabbath it was his claim of being equal with God that nailed Christ to the cross. When the Jewish authorities heard Jesus call God "my (own) Father," they did not do what many moderns have done. They did not try to tone down the character of Christ’s sonship. They immediately understood that Jesus claimed for himself deity in the highest possible sense of that term. That claim was either the most wicked blasphemy, to bepunished with death; or else, it was the most glorious truth, to be accepted by faith. The very character of the sign which Jesus had just now performed should have caused these religious leaders to adopt the latter alternative. Instead, they chose the former.

For Further Reading:

Cullen I.K. Story, What Kind of Messiah Did the Jews Expect?, BibSac, Oct-Dec 1947, Jan-Mar 1948, Apr-Jun 1948.

S. Herbert Bess, The Term "Son of God" in the Light of Old Testament Idiom, Grace Journal, Spring 1965,

As you wrestle with this passage and its implications for the Father, the Son, and your slavation, you might be discouraged by the blindness of man’s intellect and the callousness of his heart. But the misuse of Scripture is nothing new. Consider these words of A. A. Hodge.

 

If you give due attention to the difficulties involved in each of these divinely revealed doctrines, you would be able a priori to anticipate all possible heresies which have been evolved in the course of history. All truth is catholic; it embraces many elements, wide horizons, and therefore involves endless difficulties and apparent inconsistencies. The mind of man seeks for unity, and tends prematurely to force a unity in the sphere of his imperfect knowledge by sacrificing one element of the truth or other to the rest. This is eminently true of all rationalists. They are clear and logical at the expense of being superficial and half-orbed. Heresy means an act of choice, and hence division, the picking and choosing a part, instead of comprehensively embracing the whole of the truth. Almost all heresies are partial truths--true in what they affirm but false in what they deny.

 

 

The Lord Jesus Christ, the Son of God

I believe the biblical evidence indicates that the "Son of God" is a clear and persistent claim to Deity on the part of Jesus. It is ascribed to him by the Father directly. It is ascribed to him by others who heard his words and witnessed his works. If the understanding of this phrase by the Jews is accurate (and I believe it has been demonstrated to be so), then the New Testament exudes the Deity of Christ on every page. The Watchtower’s attempt to explain John 5:18 is unsatisfying. Jehovah’s Witnesses, led by the Watchtower, have failed to take their position to its logical conclusion. To do so would reveal the irrepairable harm caused against the Son by denying the truthfulness of his words.

After considering the Biblical evidence, I believe it clearly and unquestionably presents Jesus as the Son of God in the absolute fullest sense of the title. It is my sincere prayer that you, too, will be led into the truth by the Spirit of God. The God-man who saves us saves fully, completely, and certainly. He is the only mediator who can span the infinite distance between the Holy God and sinful man. Come to Him. Today.

 

 


John 5:23

in order that all may honor the Son, even as they honor the Father. He who does not honor the Son does not honor the Father who sent Him. - NASB

The fifth chapter of the Gospel of John is absolutely rich with content that bears on the question of who Jesus is. John 5 is not merely the testimony of others about our Lord. It overflows with the wonders of our Lord's own view of Himself. While we are going to focus specifically on the 23rd verse, there is so much more to be found in the surrounding context. It is a cornerstone of Christ's understanding of Himself and His work. Be sure to take the time to read the chapter in its entirety.

We're going to analyze the comments on John 5:23 from the Trinity Exposed Website (referred to as TEW). TEW is written by an active Jehovah's Witness in good standing with the organization as far as I am aware. As of September 9, 1999, TEW read as follows.

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Beginning of TEW JOHN 5:23

Some say that this verse implies that Jesus is Jehovah because we are instructed to "honor" the Son "just as" we honor the Father. Is this true? Because we are to honor the Son "just as" we honor the Father, does this make Jesus Jehovah? Some will say YES!! They even take it a step further. They say that the Greek word here rendered "just as" means "to the exact degree, perfectly the same." Is this true? Let's take a look.

First let it be said, that it does not say to "worship the Son just as we worship the Father." Yet , still some imagine it means this. The reality is though, that it says to "honor" the Son. What does this mean? The Greek word translated "honor" is "timao." It means to "hold in estimation, respect, honour, to revere." (The Analytical Greek Lexicon by Moulton pg. 405, Strong's Greek Dictionary pg. 72) It is also used at Matthew 15:4 of the way you should view your parents: "For example, God said, 'Honor your father and your mother'; and, 'Let him that reviles father or mother end up in death.'

Christians certainly are not to "worship" their parents are they?

Next, the Greek word translated "just as" is "kathos." Just what does this word mean? Does it mean to the "exact degree?" No. This word means "according as, in the manner that." ( Vines Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words pg. 385; The Analytical Greek Lexicon Revised 1978, by Moulton pg. 208) Notice it does not say to the same exact degree. We see proof that "kathos" literally cannot mean "to the same exact degree" in 1John 2:6 where it appears: "He that says he remains in union with him is under obligation himself also to go on walking just as that one walked."

This verse is telling us that Christians need to walk just as Christ, the perfect man walked. Now the question is: "Can anyone walk "exactly as, to the exact degree" that Jesus walked? Are we perfect? Better still, if Jesus is God, how can we walk "exactly to the same degree" as God? We cannot! Clearly then, to honor the son just as we honor the Father does not mean that Jesus is Jehovah.

End of TEW John 5:23

You can go to the Trinity Exposed Website by clicking here.

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Outline of TEW argument.

I. (timao) "honor" is not "worship"
A. Honoring parents is not worshipping them in Matthew 15:4.
1. Therefore John 5:23 is not speaking of worshipping the Son.
II. (kathos) "just as" does not mean "just the same as"
A. "just as" cannot mean "to the same exact degree" in I John 2:6
1. Therefore kathos cannot mean "to the same exact degree" in John 5:23.
III. therefore to honor the son just as we honor the Father does not mean that Jesus is Jehovah.

 

Where’s the beef?
There’s something missing in the TEW comments. Something basic and necessary. What is it? It is anything concerning what the passage does mean. The author has stated several points in trying to establish what the verse doesn’t mean. But nothing substantial is presented on what Jesus does mean here. It’s an attempt to empty the verse of what the TEW author believes is a faulty interpretation, but once he’s done emptying it, he never returns to fill it with meaning or significance. He simply leaves us with a blunt "it doesn’t mean that Jesus is Jehovah".

If we are to understand the Bible at all, we must go beyond knowing what it doesn’t say. We must find out what it does say. In this passage, Christ does not make a primarily negative statement about what we shouldn’t do. Rather, he tells us what we should do. He intends for his audience to follow through in positive obedience, not simply avoid something from a negative viewpoint. Let me illustrate this difference. If I were to give my children the negative prohibition, "Don’t cross the street", they would understand that they were not to cross the street. But this prohibition would not stop them from running down the sidewalk, playing catch, riding their bikes, or any other number of activities. They would be obeying the negative prohibition by not crossing the street. However, this prohibition would not provide them with positive direction for what they should, in fact, be doing. Jesus doesn’t say here that we shouldn’t do something. Instead, he tells us what we should do. It is very focused, intentional instruction he gives to us. When we consider what has preceded verse 23, Christ’s positive instruction for us becomes nothing less than amazing. We are to honor the Son just as we honor the Father. To fail to do so not only dishonors the Son, it dishonors the Father. (Keep in mind that the Jews Jesus spoke to were, in their own minds, already honoring the Father. But they were unwilling to honor the Son in the same manner. Thus they forfeited their supposed honoring of the Father.) Yet TEW gives no indication of how Christ’s positive instruction should be obeyed. TEW focuses its effort solely on what it can’t mean. While it’s good to know what something can’t mean, we do not derive the most benefit from that view of Christ’s words here. The positive meaning is most important. And on this, TEW is silent.

Mountainous Truth
A most telling display of the weakness of Watchtower theology is its inability to give this verse a meaningful interpretation. If all the Watchtower can say is that it doesn’t mean something, then they have failed in their obligation to provide a positive interpretation of the positive instruction uttered here by Christ. This very important piece of the puzzle is very obviously absent. Truth has gone a.w.o.l. from Watchtower theology. All that is left is criticism. TEW tries to flatten granite mountain truth by hurling cotton ball criticism at it. The futility of the effort is obvious. Let’s analyze the specific comments offered up on the TEW.

TEW said:

Some say that this verse implies that Jesus is Jehovah because we are instructed to "honor" the Son "just as" we honor the Father. Is this true? Because we are to honor the Son "just as" we honor the Father, does this make Jesus Jehovah? Some will say YES!! They even take it a step further. They say that the Greek word here rendered "just as" means "to the exact degree, perfectly the same." Is this true? Let's take a look.

First let it be said, that it does not say to "worship the Son just as we worship the Father." Yet , still some imagine it means this. The reality is though, that it says to "honor" the Son. What does this mean? The Greek word translated "honor" is "timao." It means to "hold in estimation, respect, honour, to revere." (The Analytical Greek Lexicon by Moulton pg. 405, Strong's Greek Dictionary pg. 72) It is also used at Matthew 15:4 of the way you should view your parents: "For example, God said, 'Honor your father and your mother'; and, 'Let him that reviles father or mother end up in death.'

Christians certainly are not to "worship" their parents are they?

 

A False Parallel
We fully agree with the TEW writer that "timao" is properly translated as "honor" and not as "worship". But any point that TEW might have made loses steam when it immediately turns to Matthew 15:4 and the command to "honor your father and your mother". Rather than deal with the honor of the Son and Father considered together, TEW attempts to redirect our attention to another text, thus freeing TEW from the need to deal with this text in any positive way. TEW facetiously asks, "Christians certainly are not to 'worship' their parents, are they?" Of course not. Neither are we commanded to honor our parents just as we honor the Father, are we? But that is exactly the honor which Christ claims as rightfully His.

TEW attempts to blunt the honoring of Christ by suggesting that its meaning parallels with the honoring of parents commanded elsewhere. Considering the unity that Jesus claims here WITH THE FATHER, the parallel breaks down. Jesus did not tell us to honor him just as we honor our parents. He speaks of the blessed privilege and obligation to honor him just as we honor the Father. To illustrate that the honoring of parents is not parallel to Christ's claim here, consider the following: Do our parents claim the right to work on the Sabbath just as "my Father" works, thus making themselves equal with God? Do our parents do the same things that the Father does? Does the Father show our parents all things that He Himself is doing? Do our parents raise the dead and give them life, to whomever they wish? Do our parents sit as judge in place of the Father, as judge of all things? Undeniably not. YET THESE ARE CHRIST'S CLAIMS, CULMINATING IN HONORING HIM JUST AS WE HONOR THE FATHER.

We are told to honor our father and mother in Matt 15:4, but there is a catch. This honoring of them is under the qualification of hating them when compared to our love for the Lord. Our obligations to fellow creatures are consistently presented in Scriptures as secondary to our obligations to God. We are to love our fellow man, yet when compared to our love for God, love for our fellow man pales in comparison. In light of this Creator/creature contrast, we are brought to a pivotal question. Is there such a qualification placed on our relationship with Jesus? Are we commanded to hate the Son in comparison with the Father, as would be expected if the Son were a mere creation of the Father? No. There is no such contrast, regarding either love of the Son or honoring Him. We are never cautioned about honoring Jesus too greatly. So this supposed parallel between honoring parents and honoring Jesus breaks down. TEW fails in its objections to overcome the awesomeness of Christ’s claim.

I think a valid question for JWs to answer is "how do you honor the Father?" Can they do those same things for Christ, fully and completely, or is it a restricted, confined, lesser honor which they render to Christ? TEW gives no indication how to answer such a question.

Think about it. In a monotheistic society, claiming God as "my Father", claiming to raise the dead and give life to whom you wish, claiming to judge all things, is NOT the way to distance yourself from claiming to be God. To the contrary, it's exactly how you would talk if you wanted to identify yourself with God in no uncertain terms. In Judaic monotheism, the fact that any and every creature is not God is a given. Old Testament monotheism presupposes radical separation between Creator and creature, not unity. These claims of Christ, placed within this monotheistic idiom, are beyond description. They are shocking. If Jesus was trying to distance his identity from God before the audience he spoke to, he would never have said these things. If he is a mere creature, as the Watchtower claims that he is, then these are the words of a madman, a usurper. The devil himself could not have claimed more.

Instead of a usurper, Jesus claims and demonstrates repeatedly his unity with the Father. His ontologically based claims to the attributes and acts of Almighty God fill the New Testament and the testimony of the Father concerning the Son rings true, loud, and clear.

The Little "j" jehovah of the Watchtower
Here is one of the points of Watchtower religion which I cannot fathom. It is an irony which reveals the bankruptcy of Arian theology. While Jehovah's Witnesses claim to defend the honor of Jehovah God beyond all other "Christian" religions, here they have a creature, A CREATED BEING, making grandiose claims that impinge on the glory, the honor, the sole domain of their supposed sovereign God, and they never even bat an eye. Trinitarian Christianity gives this text (and many others like it) a full reading that accepts the text without diminishing the glory of God, while the Watchtower is left holding the bag, struggling to find a meaningful interpretation which doesn't reduce immeasurably the honor of their unitary deity who is constantly presented in union with one of his creatures. Irregardless of the exalted position of their created Jesus, his claims here are improper of any creature in comparison to the uncreated sovereign God of creation.

Based on these factors, the TEW objections directed at John 5:23 do not even begin to touch the context of Christ's claims throughout chapter 5. John Calvin, in his commentary on John 5:23 makes this pointed analysis:

Mahometans and Jews do indeed adorn with beautiful and magnificent titles the God whom they worship; but we ought to remember that the name of God, when it is separated from Christ, is nothing else than a vain imagination.

This is a fitting description that applies equally to the Jehovah’s Witnesses of our day. Though they are prepared to honor Jehovah alone as Almighty God, their denial of the Son makes their honor empty, vain, and worthless. Just as the Jews honored Jehovah but refused to honor Jesus, so the Watchtower does not honor the Son and thus does not honor the Father who sent Him.

 

TEW says:

Next, the Greek word translated "just as" is "kathos." Just what does this word mean? Does it mean to the "exact degree?" No. This word means "according as, in the manner that." ( Vines Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words pg. 385; The Analytical Greek Lexicon Revised 1978, by Moulton pg. 208) Notice it does not say to the same exact degree. We see proof that "kathos" literally cannot mean "to the same exact degree" in 1John 2:6 where it appears: "He that says he remains in union with him is under obligation himself also to go on walking just as that one walked."

This verse is telling us that Christians need to walk just as Christ, the perfect man walked. Now the question is: "Can anyone walk "exactly as, to the exact degree" that Jesus walked? Are we perfect? Better still, if Jesus is God, how can we walk "exactly to the same degree" as God? We cannot! Clearly then, to honor the son just as we honor the Father does not mean that Jesus is Jehovah.

 

One brief comment about what was said in this section. Our inability to attain perfection does not circumvent or short-circuit our obligation before God to strive for it. In such a situation, our sin magnifies our need for, and the glory of, our Savior. We need a Savior who can save us from our own "righteousnesses", tainted as they are by sin, as much as from our sin. Such a Savior is one we can truly honor "just as we honor the Father." Jesus Christ is such a Savior. He is the only Savior.

It is my great hope and prayer that you will honor the Son just as you honor the Father. But even more than my desiring it, immeasurably more than this, it is Christ’s command.

"It is God in Christ that reconciles the world, and to him he has given power to confer eternal life. The book of life is the Lamb's book; by his award we must stand or fall." - Matthew Henry


John 8:58

Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am." - NASB

 

A very important verse concerning the Deity of Christ is John 8:58. It is one of the most prominent claims Jesus directly made concerning His Deity. The Watchtower has made a few comments on this verse in their booklet "Should You Believe In The Trinity" (referred to as SYBT).

Their comments can be found here here under the heading "I Am".

The Watchtower begins its attack on the Deity of Christ in verse 58 by focusing immediately on the use by Jesus of "I Am" as a title and its connection with the OT. Why the Watchtower starts here, I do not know. This is, at best, a secondary issue concerning verse 58. Before drawing connections to the OT, understanding the text as it stands in verse 58 is the first issue to be dealt with. On second thought, that’s probably why they do start here. By making peripheral issues sound like they are the main ones, the Watchtower diverts attention from the primary point of the text. Be that as it may, the following points need to be raised in response to the Watchtower’s claims in SYBT.

First, the Watchtower makes it sound like all Trinitarians think of John 8:58 primarily as a title. This is far from the truth. Many Christian scholars who have commented on this verse do not see it primarily as a title, but as a claim to eternal or timeless pre-existence. For example:

 

Bowman, JWs, Jesus Christ, and the Gospel of John, p.124.


"The words ego eimi in John 8:58 do not function as a title of Christ, but are a statement of his eternality (and, implicitly, his deity)."

 

Rhodes, Reasoning from the Scriptures with the JWs; p.113-120<BR>

p.118 "Jesus' use of ego eimi constituted a claim to be eternal--to exist without ever having experienced a beginning--in contrast to Abraham."

 

White, The Forgotten Trinity, ch. 6,, p.95-104, "I am He"

p.97 "The vast majority of translators see, as do many commentators, that there is a clear differentiation being made here between the derivative existence of Abraham and the eternal existence of the Lord Christ."

 

Owen, Christologia, p. 116, concerning John 8:58

"…it invincibly proves his eternal pre-existence unto his incarnation…".

 

Reymond, New Systematic Theology, p.230-232, "I am"

p.231 "But perhaps the greatest assertion to eternal preexistence is to be found in Jesus' "I am" saying of John 8:58."

 

Hendriksen, John - NTC; p.66-67<BR>

p.66 "Jesus, therefore, reaffirms his eternal, timeless, absolute existence."

p.67 "Over against Abraham's fleeting span of life Jesus places his own timeless present. To emphasize this eternal present he sets over against the aorist infinitive, indicating Abraham's birth in time, the present indicative, with reference to himself; hence, not I was, but I am.

 

Morris, New Testament Theology; p.235-238 The "I Am" Sayings<BR>

p.237 "Jesus also outrages his opponents by saying, "Before Abraham was, I am" (8:58). It is not easy to see this as anything less than the language of deity, for Jesus is affirming that he has timeless existence."

 

Vos, Can I Really Believe?; p.100

To the Jews, who claimed Abraham as Father, Jesus asserted, "Before Abraham Came to be, I am" (John 8:58, literal translation). By this Jesus taught there was a sense in which the idea of birth and beginning did not apply to Him; in Him was eternal existence (cf. Exodus 3:14).

 

Wuest, The Deity of Jesus in the Greek Texts of John and Paul, Bibliotheca Sacra, Jul 62, p.220-221

The AV reports our Lord as saying to the Jews, "Before Abraham was, I am" (John 8:58 AV). "Was" is ginomai, the verb of "becoming," not eimi, the verb of being. It is ingressive aorist, signifying entrance into a new condition. Our Lord said, "Before Abraham came into existence, I am." He does not contrast Abraham’s previous existence with His eternity of existence, but Abraham’s coming into existence with His eternal being. There is a contrast between Abraham as a created being and our Lord as uncreated, the self-existent, eternal God.

 

Vincent's Word Studies on John 8:58.

Was, I am (genesqai, egw eimi). It is important to observe the distinction between the two verbs. Abraham’s life was under the conditions of time, and therefore had a temporal beginning. Hence, Abraham came into being, or was born (genesqai). Jesus’ life was from and to eternity. Hence the formula for absolute, timeless existence, I am (egw eimi).

 

Bowman: Why You Should Believe in the Trinity; p.98-101 "I Am"<BR>

p. 100 "In this context, Jesus does not merely claim to be older than Abraham. Gabriel or any of the angels, or even the devil, could have claimed as much. Are we really to believe that Gabriel or the devil could say, "Before Abraham came into existence, I am"? The truth is that this statement was a claim to be eternal, to exist without beginning, in contrast to Abraham, who had a beginning."

 

Grudem: Systematic Theology, p.169, "I am"

"It is also indicated in Jesus' bold use of a present tense verb that implies continuing present existence when he replied to his Jewish adversaries, "Before Abraham was, I am" (John 8:58)."

 

Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Complete Commentary

John 8:58. Before Abraham was, I am --The words rendered "was" and "am" are quite different. The one clause means, "Abraham was brought into being"; the other, "I exist." The statement therefore is not that Christ came into existence before Abraham did (as Arians affirm is the meaning), but that He never came into being at all, but existed before Abraham had a being; in other words, existed before creation, or eternally (as#Joh 1:1). In that sense the Jews plainly understood Him, since "then took they up stones to cast at Him," just as they had before done when they saw that He made Himself equal with God (#Joh 5:18).

 

John Calvin's Commentary on John 8:58
"Nor do I disapprove of the opinion of Chrysostom, that the present tense of the verb is emphatic; for he does not say, I was, but I am; by which he denotes a condition uniformly the same from the beginning to the end. And he does not say, Before Abraham WAS, but, Before Abraham WAS MADE; which implies that Abraham had a beginning.

 

Chrysostom, The Nicene and Post-Nicene Fathers; Volume 14: Homilies On the Gospel of St. John, Homily 55 (written late 4th century)

Verse 58, 59. "Jesus saith unto them, Before Abraham was, I Am. Then took they up stones to cast at Him."

Seest thou how He proved Himself to be greater than Abraham? For the man who rejoiced to see His day, and made this an object of earnest desire, plainly did so because it was a day that should be for a benefit, and belonging to one greater than himself. Because they had said, "The carpenter’s son" (Matthew 13:55), and imagined nothing more concerning Him, He leadeth them by degrees to an exalted notion of Him. Therefore when they heard the words, "Ye know not God," they were not grieved; but when they heard, "before Abraham was, I Am," as though the nobility of their descent were debased, they became furious, and would have stoned Him.

"He saw My day, and was glad." He showeth, that not unwillingly He came to His Passion, since He praiseth him who was gladdened at the Cross. For this was the salvation of the world. But they cast stones at Him; so ready were they for murder, and they did this of their own accord, without inquiry.

But wherefore said He not, "Before Abraham was, I was," instead of "I Am"? As the Father useth this expression, "I Am," so also doth Christ; for it signifieth continuous Being, irrespective of all time. On which account the expression seemed to them to be blasphemous. Now if they could not bear the comparison with Abraham, although this was but a trifling one, had He continually made Himself equal to the Father, would they ever have ceased casting stones at Him?

 

Witmer, Did Jesus Claim to be God, Bibliotheca Sacra, January 1961, p.152-153

The most emphatic claim of Jesus to deity is the statement in His discussion with the Jews, "Before Abraham was born, I am" (John 8:58, A.S.V.) The Jews brought the name of Abraham, their physical and spiritual father, into the conversation (vss. 52-53). Jesus seized upon it to lead on to His final claim in the verse already quoted, startling the Jews by saying: "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day; and he saw it, and was glad" (vs. 56). When the Jews responded with a question as to how a man as young as Jesus could have seen Abraham, "Jesus claims eternal existence with the absolute phrase used of God." [Archibald Thomas Robertson, Word Pictures in the New Testament, V, 158-59.] Jesus did not claim mere pre-existence to Abraham, which would have been expressed by the imperfect tense of the verb used concerning Abraham, but eternal existence, the self-existence that belongs to God alone.

 

Young, Intermediate New Testament Greek, p.166

In John 8:58 prin Abraham genesthai ego eimi (before Abraham came into existence, I am) the indeclinable Abraham functions as the accusative subject. With the divine ego eimi the idea is more than Christ’s existing before Abraham; it means that He eternally exists (Barrett 1978:352).

 

Kittel, TDNT (1 vol. Abridgement), p.207

ego eimi as a self-designation of Jesus in Jn 8:58 (cf. 8:24; 13:19) stands in contrast to the genesthai applied to Abraham. Jesus thus claims eternity. As he is equal to the Father (5:18ff.), what is ascribed to the Father is attributed to him too (cf. Is. 43:10 LXX). The context and the ego formulation are both Jewish. The point is not Jesus’ self-identification as the Messiah ("I am he") but his supratemporal being.

 

Robertson’s Word Pictures on John 8:58

{Before Abraham was} (prin abraam genesqai). Usual idiom with prin in positive sentence with infinitive (second aorist middle of ginomai) and the accusative of general reference, "before coming as to Abraham," "before Abraham came into existence or was born." {I am} (egw eimi). Undoubtedly here Jesus claims eternal existence with the absolute phrase used of God. The contrast between genesqai (entrance into existence of Abraham) and eimi (timeless being) is complete. See the same contrast between en in#1:1 and egeneto in#1:14. See the contrast also in#Ps 90:2 between God (ei, art) and the mountains (genhqhnai). See the same use of eimi in #Joh 6:20; 9:9; 8:24,28; 18:6

 

Warfield, International Standard Bible Encyclopedia, "Trinity"

"… He removes all doubt as to the essential nature of His oneness with the Father by explicitly asserting His eternity (‘Before Abraham was born, I am,’ Jn 8:58)…"

 

Treasury of Scripture Knowledge on John 8:58

*I am. That our Lord by this expression asserted his divinity and eternal existence, as the great I AM, appears evident from the use of the present tense, instead of the past tense, from its being in answer to the Jews, who enquired whether he had seen Abraham, and from its being thus understood by the multitude, who were exasperated at it to such a degree that they took up stones to stone him.

 

"You Are Gods"? Spirituality And A Difficult Text, Stephen L. Homcy, Journal of the Evangelical Theological Society, Dec 1989, p.486

John 1:1 also points to Jesus’ preexistence as the Logos: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God." While he became (egeneto) "flesh" at a specific point in time (1:14), the Word already was (en) in the beginning of time as we know it. Along the same lines Jesus makes an astounding claim to his Jewish antagonists in 8:58: "Before Abraham came into existence, I am." The sacred name of the God of Israel seems to underlie this claim, and in any case the attribute of preexistence is clearly emphasized. But even more is implied here. The contrast between the verbs genesthai (aorist) as applied to Abraham and eimi (present) as applied to Christ is striking. C. H. Dodd puts it this way:

The implication is that Jesus does not stand within the temporal series of great men, beginning with Abraham and continuing through the succession of the prophets, so as to be compared with them. His claim is not that He is the greatest of the prophets, or even greater than Abraham himself. He belongs to a different order of being. The verb genesthai is not applicable to the Son of God at all. He stands outside the range of temporal relations.( 6C. H. Dodd, The Interpretation of the Fourth Gospel (Cambridge: Cambridge University, 1985 [1953]) 261.)

As great as Abraham was in God’s purposes, he was only human and thus inferior to the eternal Son of God.

 

House, Doctrinal Issues in Colossians, Bibliotheca Sacra, April 1992, p.183-184

Christ Himself spoke of His preexistence in connection with His claims of deity, as in John 8:58, "Before Abraham was, I AM."

 

Clarke’s Commentary, The Old Testament, Vol. 1, p.725

Our blessed Lord solemnly claims to himself what is intended in this Divine name JAH, John 8:58: "Before Abraham was, (genesqai, was born,) egw eimi, I AM," not I was, but I am, plainly intimating his Divine eternal existence. Compare Isaiah 43:13. And the Jews appear to have well understood him, for then took they up stones to cast at him as a blasphemer.

 

People's New Testament Commentary on John 8:58

"Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am. A solemn and official declaration, preceded by "Verily, verily" [see PNT "Joh 3:3"]. The utterance is a remarkable one. It does not merely assert that he was before Abraham, but before Abraham was, I AM. It identifies with the I AM of the Old Testament. Divinity has no past tense, no future tense, but always the present."

 

These quotes demonstrate conclusively that Jesus’ description of himself as "I am" in John 8:58 is not seen by Trinitarians primarily as a title, but as a claim to eternal pre-existence.

Second, in its attempt to justify its rendering of the verse in the New World Translation (NWT), the Watchtower Society glosses over important details which have a direct impact on how it should be understood and translated.

"Before Abraham came into existence, I have been." New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures.

They state their justification for this rendering as follows:

Thus, the real thought of the Greek used here is that God's created "firstborn," Jesus, had existed long before Abraham was born.-Colossians 1:15; Proverbs 8:22, 23, 30; Revelation 3:14.

Again, the context shows this to be the correct understanding. This time the Jews wanted to stone Jesus for claiming to "have seen Abraham" although, as they said, he was not yet 50 years old. (Verse 57) Jesus' natural response was to tell the truth about his age. So he naturally told them that he "was alive before Abraham was born!"-The Simple English Bible.

The Watchtower says that the Greek in this verse identifies Jesus as a created being ("God’s created ‘firstborn’"). Well, there is something in the Greek that identifies someone as a created being, but it isn’t Jesus! It is Abraham. Let me explain. There are two parts to Jesus’ statement. The first part describes Abraham. "Before Abraham was born…", or "Before Abraham came into existence…". The Greek verb describing Abraham here is the word genesthai. It carries with it much more than the idea that Abraham "existed". Genesthai is the kind of verb that emphasizes Abraham’s entrance into existence. In other words, Abraham’s birth is in view here. His coming into existence is what the Lord is emphasizing by the use of this specific Greek verb. To substantiate this, I’ll document this from relevant reference material. Some of these quotes have already been presented earlier in this article. I'm not stuck in a rut. The comments, though already mentioned, are well worth repeating for the point under consideration.

 

Robertson, Word Pictures In The New Testament, John 8:58

{Before Abraham was} (prin abraam genesqai). Usual idiom with prin in positive sentence with infinitive (second aorist middle of ginomai) and the accusative of general reference, "before coming as to Abraham," "before Abraham came into existence or was born." {I am} (egw eimi). Undoubtedly here Jesus claims eternal existence with the absolute phrase used of God. The contrast between genesqai (entrance into existence of Abraham) and eimi (timeless being) is complete. See the same contrast between en in#1:1 and egeneto in#1:14. See the contrast also in#Ps 90:2 between God (ei, art) and the mountains (genhqhnai). See the same use of eimi in #Joh 6:20; 9:9; 8:24,28; 18:6.

 

Friberg, Analytical Greek Lexicon

ginomai: (1) as what comes into existence become, come to be, originate, w. the distinctive sense arising from the context; (a) of persons. be born, appear (RO 1.3)…

 

Louw-Nida, Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: Semantic Domains, p.158

ginomai: to come into existence - ‘to be formed, to come to exist.’ Panta di autou egeneto ‘everything came into existence through him’ Jn 1.3; prin Abraam genesthai ego eimi ‘before Abraham came into existence, I existed’ Jn 8:58.

 

Kittel, Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, 1 Vol. Abridgment (Bromiley), p.117

ginomai. This word has little theological interest in the NT apart from the distinction between genesthai and einai in Jn 8:58.

 

Perschbacher, The New Analytical Greek Lexicon, p.80

ginomai to be born, produced, grow, Matt 21:9; John 8:58; et al.

 

Mounce, Analytical Lexicon of the Greek NT, p.126

ginomai to be born, produced, grow, Matt 21:9; John 8:58; et al.

 

Thayer, Greek-English Lexicon, p.115

ginomai 1. to become, i.e. to come into existence, begin to be, receive being: absol., Jn 1:15, 30 (emprosthen mou gegonen); Jn 8:58 (prin Abraham genesthai)…

 

Vincent's Word Studies on John 8:58

Was, I am (genesqai, egw eimi). It is important to observe the distinction between the two verbs. Abraham’s life was under the conditions of time, and therefore had a temporal beginning. Hence, Abraham came into being, or was born (genesqai). Jesus’ life was from and to eternity. Hence the formula for absolute, timeless existence, I am (egw eimi).

 

Here is a current description of the "ingressive aorist". This describes the verb used of Abraham (genesthai) by Jesus here in John 8:58.

Wallace, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, p.558, Ingressive Aorist

A. Definition

The aorist tense may be used to stress the beginning of an action or the entrance into a state. Unlike the ingressive imperfect, there is no implication that the action continues. This is simply left unstated. The ingressive aorist is quite common.

B. Clarification

The use of the aorist is usually shut up to two kinds of verbs: (1) It occurs with stative verbs, in which the stress is on entrance into the state. It also occurs with verbs that denote activities, especially in contexts where the action is introduced as a new item in the discourse.

That it is understood in John 8:58 to emphasize Abraham's entrance into existence can be seen in several Bible translations.

 

American Standard Version - Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was born, I am.

 

New International Version - "I tell you the truth," Jesus answered, "before Abraham was born, I am!"

 

New American Standard - Jesus said to them, "Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am."

 

Bible in Basic English - Jesus said to them, Truly I say to you, Before Abraham came into being, I am.

 

Wuest’s Expanded Translation - Most assuredly I am saying to you, Before Abraham came into existence, I AM.

 

Young’s Literal Translation - Jesus said to them, 'Verily, verily, I say to you, Before Abraham's coming -- I am;'

 

The second part of Jesus' saying described Himself. He said "I am". This is the Greek verb eimi. Reference materials concerning its meaning follow.

 

Louw-Nida, Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: Semantic Domains, p.157

13.69 eimi: to exist, in an absolute sense - ‘to be, to exist.’ Pisteusai … hoti estin ‘must have faith … that (God) exists’ He 11:6; pro tou tov kosmon eivai ‘before the world existed’ Jn 17:5; kalountos ta ma onta hos onta ‘whose command brings into being what did not exist’ Ro 4:17; en auto gar zomen kai kinometha kay esmen ‘in whom we live and move about and have our existence’ Ac 17:28

 

Friberg, Analytical Greek Lexicon

eimi I. as predicate to be, to denote what exists; (1) of God's existence (HE 11.6); ho wn the one who is, exists (RV 1.4); (2) of Christ's self-designation of himself ego eimi I am (John 8.58)…

 

Perschbacher, The New Analytical Greek Lexicon, p.119

Eimi a verb of existence, to be, to exist, John 1:1; 17:5; Matt 6:30; Luke 4:25, et al.

 

Mounce, Analytical Lexicon of the Greek NT, p.164.

eimi to be, to exist, John 1:1; 17:5; Matt 6:30; Luke 4:25

 

Thayer, Greek-English Lexicon, p.175, 177.

I. eimi has the force of a predicate [i.e. is the substantive verb]: to be, i.e. 1. To exist; a. passages in which the idea of the verb preponderates, and some person or thing is said to exist by way of distinction from things non-existent. Estin ho Theos, Heb 11:6; ho on kai ho an [W. 68(66), cf.182(172); B.50(43)], Rev 1:4, [8; iv.8]; 11.17; 16:5; en arche an ho logos, Jn 1:1; prin Abraham genesthai, ego eimi, John 8:58 [so WH mrg in 24, 28; 13:19 (see II.5 below)]

II.5 The formula ego eimi (I am he), freq. In the Gospels, esp. in John, must have its predicate supplied mentally, inasmuch as it is evident from the context…

spec. I am the Messiah, Mk 13:6; 14:62; Luke 21:8; john 4:26; 8:24,28; 13:19…

 

Kittel, TDNT (1 vol. Abridgement), p.207

ego eimi as a self-designation of Jesus in Jn 8:58 (cf. 8:24; 13:19) stands in contrast to the genesthai applied to Abraham. Jesus thus claims eternity. As he is equal to the Father (5:18ff.), what is ascribed to the Father is attributed to him too (cf. Is. 43:10 LXX). The context and the ego formulation are both Jewish. The point is not Jesus’ self-identification as the Messiah ("I am he") but his supratemporal being.

 

Carson, Gospel of John (PNTC), John 8:58

Once more Jesus solemnly announces, I tell you the truth. If he had wanted to claim only that he existed before Abraham, it would have been simpler to say, ‘before Abraham was, I was.’ Instead, bringing forward the use of ego eimi found in vv. 24, 28, Jesus says, ‘before Abraham was born, I am.’ Whatever doubts may attach themselves to whether or not ego eimi should be taken absolutely in vv. 24, 28, here there can be none.

 

 

In contrast to the verb he used to describe Abraham's entrance into existence, Jesus uses the present indicative verb of existence, "I am" (Greek = eimi). In layman’s terms, the two verbs aren’t the same "kind". This fact is pretty easy to miss when the English translation runs "Abraham was, I am". "Was" and "am" seem quite similar to a native English speaker. There isn’t that much contrast to them. The emphasis of "entering into a new condition" isn’t apparent concerning Abraham when the Greek (genesthai) is translated as "was". Yet, as documented by the many scholars already quoted, there is an identifiable contrast between the verbs used of Abraham (genesthai) and Christ (eimi). Although the New World Translation observes correctly the intent of the verb regarding Abraham (Before Abraham came into existence), they fail to carry over the full contrast in the verbs regarding Christ’s existence. They say he meant "I have been", not "I am". Specifically, they say Christ intends that he is merely an older creature in comparison to Abraham. Yet, eimi does not carry the emphasis that genesthai does of entering into a new condition. The Watchtower is trying to make these words sound more similar than they really are. Yet the contrast is truly there in the Greek and has been documented.

You see, the Watchtower has misidentified the kind of comparison being made in John 8:58. They say that Christ is stating that he is older than Abraham, nothing more and nothing less. Rather than being a contrast of similar kinds of existence that differ only in their duration, there is a much larger difference. Instead of a comparison of duration of existence, the actual kinds of existence are the object of the contrast, one experiencing a beginning (thus created) and one never having a beginning (thus eternal). Some of the commentators quoted previously specifically mention this error of the Jehovah’s Witnesses.

 

Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Complete Commentary

John 8:58. Before Abraham was, I am--The words rendered "was" and "am" are quite different. The one clause means, "Abraham was brought into being"; the other, "I exist." The statement therefore is not that Christ came into existence before Abraham did (as Arians affirm is the meaning), but that He never came into being at all, but existed before Abraham had a being; in other words, existed before creation, or eternally (as#Joh 1:1). In that sense the Jews plainly understood Him, since "then took they up stones to cast at Him," just as they had before done when they saw that He made Himself equal with God (#Joh 5:18).

 

Wuest, The Deity of Jesus in the Greek Texts of John and Paul, Bibliotheca Sacra, Jul 62, p.220-221

The AV reports our Lord as saying to the Jews, "Before Abraham was, I am" (John 8:58 AV). "Was" is ginomai, the verb of "becoming," not eimi, the verb of being. It is ingressive aorist, signifying entrance into a new condition. Our Lord said, "Before Abraham came into existence, I am." He does not contrast Abraham’s previous existence with His eternity of existence, but Abraham’s coming into existence with His eternal being. There is a contrast between Abraham as a created being and our Lord as uncreated, the self-existent, eternal God.

 

What will the average Jehovah’s Witness say at this point? They will give you the only card they have left to play. Typically, they will say "You’re just being picky about words." Since they cannot refute the facts about the language, there is nowhere left for them to turn. This is the only option left for them (at least, for the average JW). It’s almost like they suddenly "got religion" about not being too picky about Greek and grammar and translation of words. Funny, but most of the time they are very willing to go toe-to-toe over Greek grammar that they don’t even understand. Suddenly, when presented with factual and understandable information regarding John 8:58, they switch from "fight" mode to "flight" mode and hightail it out of there. It would do well to remind them that "being picky about words" is exactly what we should be when dealing with the inspired Word of God.

Jesus Christ stands in John 8:58 clearly claiming His Deity. The Watchtower’s arguments against this have missed the mark. But this leaves us at a crucial point. What will you do with this one who claims eternity? Do you have ears to hear Him today or will you continue to cling to the Watchtower caricature of Michael-Jesus-Michael? The text of Scripture has withstood the onslaught of unbelief and Jesus Christ’s claims on you have not diminished. On the contrary, they have intensified because now you know what he claimed to be. It is my prayer that you would know Him as your God, Lord, and Savior.


A Critique of the Jehovah's Witness Article The "ego eimi'" of Jn 8:58 as a "self designation", is it intelligible in Greek?

This section is a brief critique of an article about John 8:58 on Rick Stamp’s "Bible Exegesis" site. Although the article is not attributed to a particular author on the site, I believe it is the work of a Jehovah’s Witness named Martin Smart. I would encourage you to read it in its entirety. It is not my intention either to note every error or to pretend to provide a complete grammatical lesson in basic English or Greek in this response. I will assume that the reader has some familiarity with the languages. My comments will be focused on specific details of the article.

 

How Not To Make A Point

In the article under review, the author put a note at the beginning concerning the accentuation of the Greek verb eimi in John 8:58. He provides us with two references that he says will give us "an explanation for how this emphasis is to be interpreted." One of the references is to D.A. Carson's book on Greek Accents. Considering that the Jehovah's Witness author is working towards defending the interpretation of John 8:58 as "I have been" and that he presents Carson as a sound reference regarding interpretation, the reference to Carson seems entirely out of place. Here's what Carson says:

EPR 6. An enclitic retains its accent when:
EPR.6.1 there is emphasis on the enclitic;
EPR 6.2 the enclitic stands at the head of its clause;
EPR 6.3 the enclitic is preceded by ou, ouk, or oux, as a separate word.
[My note: 6.1 is the only possible consideration affecting eimi in John 8:58, since 6.2 and 6.3 do not apply there.]
Comment: In short, the difference between e)go/ ei)mi and e)go\ ei)mi/ is the slight difference between "I am" and I am". It is often difficult to be certain whether an enclitic in the New Testament should be accented or not, since accents were not included in the original uncial scripts. But editorial decisions have to be made, just as they have to be made for punctuation. (D.A. Carson, Greek Accents, p.49-50)

 

Carson is saying that there is a "slight difference" in emphasis due to the retention of the accent on ei)mi/. This accent is retained through editorial decision based on the surrounding context. And what effect does this emphasis have on the understanding and translation of eimi as "I have been" (which is where the JW author is headed)? Does the accent, according to Carson, mark eimi here in such a fashion that it should be translated into English as "I have been"? Obviously not, since Carson illustrates his point by describing the contrast as "I am" compared to "I am", not "I am" with "I have been". Recall that the JW author said Carson's comments provide "an explanation for how this emphasis is to be interpreted". Fine. Follow Carson’s lead here and interpret ego eimi as "I am". After all, the JW author said Carson provided help with understanding the effect on interpretation of the retained accent. But that is not how the JW author wants to translate eimi here. He wants to argue for the superiority of "I have been", not "I am". This is why I find his reference to Carson confusing. Why cite a reference that argues for the historic translation and present it as if it supports another translation? I don’t think I’m the only one confused here. It appears that the JW author, by grasping for any credible reference possible, has included something not simply irrelevant, but contrary to his argued position.

 

Shotgun Logic

The claim is made by the JW author in the second premise that the syntax of John 8:58 is not unique and can be compared to other sentences in the Greek Scriptures. Immediately following this claim (the second sentence after it), the JW author states that the retained accent on eimi isolates it grammatically and contextually from all other similar expressions. To put these two statements together results in nonsense, for the author is saying:

The syntax is not unique.
The grammar and context are unique.

Huh? Syntax is a subset of grammar, so how can the grammar (which would include the syntax) be unique but the syntax not be unique? I guess that if you include all descriptions, even contradictory ones, one of them will possibly hit the mark. This could be called "shotgun logic". Throw out a lot of lead and you just might hit something. While that may be an excellent way to put supper on the table, it reveals a basic lack of understanding on the part of the JW author. He would be better off if he took the time to truly understand what he’s writing about, instead of firing several rounds of "shotgun logic".

 

Limited, In A, Well, You Know, Sort Of, An Unlimited Sense

This is one of those times when, after reading what was said, you can only shake your head. In the section on grammatical analysis (section 3.e.), the JW author is drawing a parallel between John 8:58 and John 15:27. His goal is to identify eimi in John 8:58 as a "present of past action" , also known as a "durative present", "progressive present", or "extending-from-past present". He writes:

The "time" specified by the verb "to be" in both cases is a combination of present and past time, limited by the adverbial subordinate clause. At John 15:27 this limit is 'from the beginning' and at John 8:58 it is some indefinite time from before Abraham's birth. (emphasis added)

Another way to say "some indefinite time" is "some unlimited time". In other words, the JW author is saying that we have an "unlimited limit" in John 8:58. Or maybe he would describe it as "definitely limited indefinitely". Brilliant. Simply brilliant. After reading this I can only think that Jehovah's Witnesses will go to unlimited limits to argue their cause.

 

Emphatic Emphasis and Eclectic Analysis

The JW author has conspicuously omitted any discussion of the ingressive aorist genesthai used to describe Abraham's coming into being and its contrast with the present indicative eimi used of Christ. This omission is conspicuous in light of the JW author’s repeated mention of the emphatic form of eimi in the same verse. He emphasizes the emphasis but never explores why it’s there or what relationship the emphatic eimi has with genesthai. Rather than presenting a full grammatical analysis of the verse that includes all of the words, the JW author is playing some kind of "picky-choosy" eclecticism.

Although the JW author has overlooked the contrast between eimi and genesthai, many others have not failed to notice this important detail. Several scholars have noted this contrast and highlighted its impact on our understanding of eimi in John 8:58. Earlier in this document are several relevant sources that discuss the evident contrast.

 

Shifting Sand

While the JW author of the article set his sights high, he has failed to hit the mark in providing an accurate, helpful examination of John 8:58. Abuse of sources, logical contradictions, and omission of important details leave the reader with a stunted view of the verse that does not do justice to the text.

 

The Solid Rock

The historic understanding that Christ claims eternal existence, thus claiming to be God, stands firm. I urge you to believe Christ’s words in John 8:58 and come to Him who is fully God and fully man for the forgiveness of your sins and your salvation.


What About the Trinity Exposed Website on John 8:58?

Another website run by an active Jehovah's Witness, the Trinity Exposed Website (TEW) has some short comments regarding John 8:58. Their commentary on John 8:58 can be found here. There is little to be said about TEW's comments that hasn't been covered already. It is a basic rehash of the Watchtower material as presented in the Should You Believe In The Trinity booklet, with a bit of 'tude thrown in for good measure.

For a website that bills itself as "exposing" the Trinity, the treatment of John 8:58 is very weak. The primary thrust of the comments are directed at "ego eimi" as a title paralleling Ex 3:14, which is, at best, a secondary consideration. Also, the contrast of eimi and genesthai in John 8:58 is unmentioned. I guess it could be said that the Trinity Exposed site exposes something, but it's not the Trinity. TEW exposes the indefensible theology of the Watchtower for the whole world to see.

 

 

 


John 17:3

This is eternal life, that they may know You, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom You have sent. (NASB)

 

by Robert Hommel

robert.hommel@usa.net





This verse has become a favorite of Jehovah's Witnesses and others who deny the Trinity.  They claim that since Jesus says that the Father is the only true God,  Jesus cannot also be the only true God.

Trinitarians have often responded that if the Father is the only true God, and the Watchtower is correct is saying that Jesus is "a god," then Jesus must be a false God, for anything that is not true, must be false.  Jehovah's Witnesses will often note that the word "true" (alethinos) can mean true in the sense of "something real, as distinguished from a copy."  Thus, they say, the Father is the only true God in that He is the original, while Jesus is the "image" of God, a copy.  A copy is clearly not false, Witnesses argue, for in the book of Hebrews, we read that the true Tabernacle is in Heaven.  "That doesn't mean the earthly Tabernacle is false, does it?" they ask.  In support of this definition of alethinos, Watchtower apologists cite lexicons such as Baur, Arndt, and Gingrich (BAG): "True in the sense of reality possessed only by an archetype, not its copies." (1)

Are the Jehovah's Witnesses right?  Is Jesus really saying that only one Person - the Father - is the true God?  Are the Witnesses using sound exegetical principles in defining alethinos the way they do?

Let's examine this verse closely.  First, had Jesus said, "Only you, Father, are the true God," He would, indeed, be proclaiming what the Watchtower says.  However, that's not precisely what Jesus said.  He said to the Father, "you, the only true God."  Thus, Jesus includes the Father in the identity of the True God.  Does that eliminate Jesus from that category?  Only if you assume before hand that God is not multi-personal (subsisting in more than one Person).  If you do not make that assumption up front, the verse leaves open the possibility that other Persons may be included in the identity of the true God.

In logic, if you assume the conclusion your trying to prove, you are guilty of a logical fallacy often called "begging the question."  The Watchtower and its apologists are guilty of this fallacy with regard to John 17:3, for only by first assuming that God is one Person, can you "prove" by this verse that Jesus defined God as unipersonal.

Let's be clear:  Trinitarians do not claim that John 17:3 "proves" the Trinity; we simply maintain that scripturally and logically, it does not deny it.

With regard to alethinos, we may first note that in English, the word "true" may mean "real, in the sense of an archetype, as distinguished from a copy" or "true contrasted with false."  Alethinos has the very much the same semantic range in Koine Greek, as BAG makes clear (p. 37).  The question is, which connotation does Jesus intend here?  Extending the meaning of a word beyond that required by the context is not a sound exegetical practice.  After all, the word "true" has within its semantic range the connotation of "straight," but Jesus is not saying the Father is the only straight-line God!

Let's take a look at the context of the verses in discussion.  In Hebrews 8:2 and 9:24, the writer is clearly referring to the "true Tabernacle" in heaven where Jesus is the High Priest, in contrast to the earthly (and less "real") Tabernacle.  In context, John 17:3 does not imply a contrast between Jesus and God.  Instead, the context is Jesus' concern that the disciples know the Father in an intimate way, that they may thus obtain eternal life.  For who gives eternal life, but the true God (as contrasted with false gods)?  Thus, context argues for the connotation of "the true God, as opposed to false gods."

Which connotation do the lexicons support for alethinos in John 17:3?  After all, Watchtower apologists have used BAG and Thayer to support their view, haven't they?  BAG recognizes the semantic range of alethinos as containing "true in the sense of reality possessed only by an archetype, not its copies."  However, they reference this shade of meaning for Hebrews 8:2 and 9:24, not in reference to John 17:3.  When we consult the lexicon with regard John 17:3, BAG is quite clear:  "of God in contrast to other gods, who are not real."  Thus, BAG recognizes the context of John 17:3 as requiring the "true contrasted with false" connotation.

Thayer defines alethinos as "contrasts realities with their semblences" for Hebrews 8:2 and 9:24, but "opposed to what is ficticious, counterfeit, imaginary, simulated, pretended" for John 17:3 (p. 27).  So, Thayer, too, recognizes the correct connotation of alethinos in John 17:3 as "true contrasted with false."

Another source frequently used by the Watchtower and its defenders is Vine's Expository Dictionary.  How does Vine define alethinos?  Vine recognizes Hebrews 8:2 and 9:24 as requiring the meaning: "the spiritual, archetypal tabernacle," but defines alethinos in John 17:3 as: "'very God,' in distinction from all other gods, false gods" (p. 645).

So, we see that Greek scholars, most of whom are cited by the Watchtower or by Watchtower apologists, specify the connotation of alethinos in John 17:3 as "the only true God (as distinguished from all other gods, who are false)."  This definition of alethinos presents serious problems for Watchtower theology, for by saying "the only true God," Jesus states quite clearly that any other who is termed "a god," must be a false god.

If God is unipersonal, this verse does not teach it.  If a lesser "copy" of God is not a false god, the context of this verse does not demonstrate it.  Jesus says that eternal life is an intimate personal knowledge of God (not "taking in knowledge about God," as the Watchtower teaches), and of Jesus Christ, whom the Father has sent.  Our hope for eternal life, then, resides in knowing both the Father and the Son in a personal way, and knowing them as they truly are:  One God, One Lord, One Savior.
 
 

Notes

(1)  Two prominent websites by Watchtower apologists, The Trinity Exposed Website and Rick Stamp's Bible Exegisis site, used BAG and Thayer in support of their view of alethinos.  Both sites have recently been taken down, apparently in response to Watchtower guidelines regarding the Internet.

ADDENDUM

John 17:3 and Monos



Below is a commentary on John 17:3 and the use of monos by Jehovah's Witness Martin Smart that was posted on a public bulletin board on the Internet.  A similar commentary appeared at one time on Rick Stamp's Bible Exegesis Website.  My response appears below.
 


Martin Smart's Commentary

This scripture clearly reserves the title of "only True God" for the Father of Jesus alone, to whom he prayed at John 17:3. Since to Trinitarians the only true God is the Trinity they sometimes assert that this verse does not eliminate Jesus from the title. This Trinitarian interpretation ignores the lexical meaning of the Greek MONOS which in this construction refers to only one person as God alone. (See Thayer reference below.)

I have found no bible version that allows for an interpretation of the title which includes the Son. Many of the versions below are worded in a way which clearly does
not allow for any suggestion that Jesus is being included in the title "only true God."

John 17:3

   1."And eternal life means knowing you as the only true God, and knowing Jesus your messenger as Christ." (Goodspeed)
   2."(And this is life eternal, that they know thee, the only real God, and him whom thou hast sent, even Jesus Christ.)" (Moffatt)
   3."And eternal life means to know you, the only true God, and to know Jesus Christ, whom you sent." (TEV)
   4."This is eternal life:to know thee who alone art truly God, and Jesus Christ whom thou hast sent." (NEB)
   5."And in this consists the Life of the Ages--in[1] knowing Thee the only true God and Jesus Christ whom Thou hast sent. [1 Knowing] Or, as the
     tense implies, 'an ever-enlarging knowledge of.']" (Weymouth)
   6."Now eternal life means knowing you as the only true God and knowing Jesus your messenger as Christ." (C.B Williams)
   7."This means everlasting life, their taking in knowledge of you, the only true God, and of the one whom you sent forth, Jesus Christ. " (NWT)
   8."And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only trueGod, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent." (KJV)
   9."Now this is eternal life: that they may know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent." (NIV)

Lexical

Thayers, p. 418 says of MONOS at John 17:3 that the title "only true God" applies only to the Father with:

     "it is joined with its noun to other verbs also, so that what is predicated may be declared to apply to some one person alone... he who alone is
     God: Jn v.44; xvii.3 [John 17:3]"

Commentary

Trinitarian Murray J. Harris, in "Jesus as God," says of John 17:3 that the grammatical construction is unambiguous and also provides an example of how the Greek
would need to read to include Jesus in the title "only true God."

     Page 248, "... in the unambiguous TON MONON ALHQININ QEON in John 17:3 (where a distinction is drawn between "the one true
     God"and "the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ" )

     Page 251 "This leads me to suggest that if John had intended to affirm that God's Son was hO ALHQINOS QEOS, John 17:3 indicates that he
     would probably have written something like hOUTOS KAI KTL., "He (God's Son, Jesus Christ) also is the true God and life eternal"

End of Martin Smart's Commentary
 
 

A Response To Martin Smart and the use of Monos in John 17:3

Martin's initial comments require little response.  They are essentially the same argument long stated by the Watchtower, and suffer from the same logical fallacy of assuming the point they are trying to prove: namely, the unipersonal nature of God.  Only if one assumes that God is unipersonal from the outset can John 17:3 "prove" that only the Father is the true God.  None of the versions cited indicate that only the Father is the true God, for that is not what is said in the Greek.  Jesus said the Father is the true God, which He is, but if Jesus is included in the identity of the true God (as Scripture elsewhere clearly declares), this verse does not deny Him that status.

Martin's accusation that Trinitarians are "ignoring" the lexical meaning of monos is a more significant argument and one which deserves careful attention.  If Martin Smart is right, and the Greek monos limits the noun it modifies to "one person alone," we Trinitarians had better rethink our theology, for this verse would suggest that only one person - the Father - is the true God.  Is Martin right?  Does Thayer, whom Martin cites for support, intend that his defnition of monos as meaning "one person alone" be applied absolutely and rigidly in a theological sense to limit the true God to the person of the Father?

If you look closely at Martin's citation, you'll notice an ellipses ("...") indicating some text has been omitted.  In this case, the omitted text contains (among other things) a list of verses which Thayer cites as examples of his definition.  Three of these verses, Matthew 4:4, Luke 24:12, and John 6:22, clearly don't refer to one person, so why should we accept the definition as absolute when applied to John 17:3?

Here are the three verses Thayer lists which don't apply to one person:

Mat 4:4:  Jesus answered, "It is written: 'Man does not live on bread alone (monoo), but on every word that comes from the mouth of God.'"

Luke 24:12:  Then arose Peter, and ran unto the sepulchre; and stooping down, he beheld the linen clothes laid by themselves (mona), and departed, wondering in himself at that which was come to pass.

John 6:22:  The next day the crowd that had stayed on the opposite shore of the lake realized that no other boat was there except one, and that Jesus had not entered it with his disciples, but that they had gone away alone (monoi).

John 6:22 certainly refers to more than one person.  Jehovah's Witnesses may respond that monoi is plural, while monos is singular, but this is beside the point:  Martin has argued that the lexical meaning of monos is what is in question, not whether the word is singular or plural.  It seems quite clear from the other verses Thayer has listed that the definition "one person alone" was not meant to apply in a lexically rigid or absolute sense; therefore, it is hardly credible to suggest that he intended his definition to be used as an argument for the unipersonal nature of God.

Even if he did, there is a sense in which this entire discussion is quite ridiculous.  Are we to believe that Thayer (or more precisely Grimm, whom Thayer was translating) was actually suggesting that a simple adjective meaning "alone, only," could contain within its semantic range so precise a connotation as to limit its predicate absolutely to one person?  This notion flies in the face both of good semantic linguistics and good sense.  I would be shocked if there were any adjective in any language (outside of precise Theological terms) that could never be applied to more than one person.  How would such a restrictive meaning ever develop in the Greek language?  What purpose would it have served?  It's not like there were Trinitarian debates going on in the 1st Century that would have required monos to develop a specific, theological connotation.  And outside of theology, having an adjective that restricts the predicate to one person would be quite useless.

Finally, what of Martin's use of Murray Harris?  Is Harris suggesting that John 17:3 must refer to the Father as the only person who is the true God?

When we look at what Harris wrote, we find that he was not dealing with whether the Person of the Father was exclusively contained in "true God."  Rather, the context is Harris' response to Bousset, who suggests that John 17:3 is actually calling both the Father and Jesus Christ the True God.  "Such an understanding should not be dismissed as impossible," Harris says.  However, as Martin's quote (p. 251) demonstrates, Harris does not think the evidence supports Bousset's contention.  This does not mean that Harris is arguing that Jesus should be understood to say that only one Person - the Father - is the true God.  As I have stated previously, Trinitarians do not argue that John 17:3 proves the Trinity, simply that it does not deny it.  There is nothing in the quoted passages that deny the Trinity, either, for to "distinguish" the Son from the Father is not to deny the Son's divinity.  Indeed, it would be strange if it were so, for Harris concludes his thorough and extensively documented study as follows:

"While the NT customarily reserves the term theos for the Father, occasionally it is applied to Jesus in his preincarnate, incarnate, or postresurrection state.  As used of the Father, theos is virtually a proper name. As used of Jesus, theos is a generic title, being an appellation descriptive of his genus as one who inherently belongs to the category of Deity" (p. 298).  He further explains:  "The word "generic" needs careful definition.  As used here, it does not refer to a class that includes many divine beings, but to a category involving a single entitiy ("God")" (p. 298, note).


 

                                              
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